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Principles of Supervision
DSST Principles of Supervision
100
Management
Professional
10/31/2012

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Cards

Term
Which of the following defines the primary role of a supervisor?
a. Directs the work of others
b. Produces goods and services
c. Answers customers' questions
d. Repairs malfunctioning equipment
Definition
The primary role of a supervisor is to direct the work of others within an organization. A supervisor has authority to hire or fire employees and to oversee the work that they accomplish.
Term
Supervisors generally have responsibility for all of the following types of duties EXCEPT
a. making hiring decisions.
b. recommending individuals for promotions.
c. authorizing employee transfers.
d. providing clerical assistance.
Definition
Supervisors generally perform managerial duties including hiring, firing, transferring, and promoting employees. Supervisors generally are not responsible for carrying out routine or clerical duties.
Term
Which of the following job-related attributes distinguishes a supervisor from a nonmanagerial employee?
a. Exercise of authority
b. Seniority
c. Punctuality
d. High productivity
Definition
In carrying out their duties, supervisors generally exercise authority over others. This attribute is not shared by employees without supervisory responsibility.
Term
Each of the following types of skills is required by supervisors EXCEPT
a. technical skills.
b. conceptual skills.
c. competition skills.
d. administrative skills.
Definition
Supervisors must display managerial skills including technical, conceptual, administrative, and human relations skills. Competition skills are not considered a requirement of supervisory positions.
Term
The ability to gather and interpret information falls under which of the following main categories of managerial skills?
a. Conceptual skills
b. Technical skills
c. Human relations skills
d. Administrative skills
Definition
Conceptual skills include collecting, analyzing, and interpreting information necessary for making sound business decisions.
Term
Which of the following types of managerial skills is important for understanding the hidden rules by which an organization operates?
a. Administrative
b. Political
c. Technical
d. Conceptual
Definition
Political skills enable today's supervisors to understand the hidden rules of an organization and how informal relationships operate. Political skills can be especially important for accomplishing goals outside of formal organizational channels.
Term
Which of the following supervisory roles involves representing a group as its symbolic head?
a. Negotiator
b. Disturbance handler
c. Figurehead
d. Leader
Definition
A supervisor serves as the symbolic head of a group or unit through the managerial figurehead role. In the leadership role, a supervisor motivates subordinates to achieve their goals.
Term
A supervisor who responds to crises that affect a group is acting in which of the following supervisory roles?
a. Monitor
b. Negotiator
c. Disturbance handler
d. Disseminator
Definition
In the disturbance handler role, a supervisor responds to crises and addresses problems that arise. Disturbance handling might involve resolving conflicts between employees or helping to organize a department's emergency response efforts.
Term
Which of the following is an example of the managerial role of spokesperson?
a. Tracking departmental productivity
b. Creating a manufacturing schedule
c. Representing the department at meetings
d. Dividing employees into work groups
Definition
The supervisory role of spokesperson involves representing employees and the group to others. As a spokesperson, for instance, a supervisor attends meetings and handles correspondence regarding the department or unit.
Term
Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the process of choosing from among available alternatives?
a. Decision making
b. Negotiating
c. Problem solving
d. Communicating
Definition
Decision making is generally defined as the process through which one alternative is chosen from many available alternatives. Problem solving, by contrast, involves selecting an action specifically designed to remedy a problem.
Term
Programmed decisions are usually made under which of the following conditions?
a. High certainty
b. High risk
c. High uncertainty
d. Low structure
Definition
Programmed decisions are usually made under conditions characterized by a high degree of certainty. Programmed decisions are generally highly structured and are routine or repetitive in nature.
Term
Before engaging in the steps of the decision-making process, a supervisor should
a. perform a cost-benefit analysis of available alternatives.
b. collect information about each potential option.
c. identify possible alternatives for solving the problem.
d. consider whether making a decision is in fact necessary.
Definition
In some cases, a decision may not actually be needed. For instance, if a supervisor's superiors are determined to take one particular course of action, then a decision on the supervisor's part will not be necessary. The remaining choices represent steps involved once the decision-making process has started.
Term
Principles of conduct that govern the behavior of an individual are known as
a. loyalty.
b. authority.
c. ethics.
d. responsibility.
Definition
The term ethics is commonly used to describe principles of conduct that govern the behavior of an individual or a group of individuals.
Term
A supervisor demonstrates fairness through all of the following EXCEPT
a. dealing with employees honestly.
b. showing empathy for employees.
c. disciplining employees leniently.
d. providing objective evaluations.
Definition
Lenient discipline may not necessarily indicate fairness on the part of a supervisor. Instead, to display fair and ethical conduct, a supervisor must implement balanced and appropriate discipline.
Term
Which of the following questions would be most likely to help determine whether or not a behavior is ethical?
a. "Does it achieve my group's goals?"
b. "Does it benefit me?"
c. "Is it truthful?"
d. "Will it enhance the status of my group?"
Definition
One criterion for determining ethical behavior concerns the truthfulness and honesty of a behavior. A behavior that achieves a group's goals or benefits a supervisor personally may not necessarily be an ethical behavior. Similarly, a behavior that enhances a group's status may not necessarily be ethical.
Term
Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the right of a supervisor to give orders and expect subordinates to follow those orders?
a. Authority
b. Chain of command
c. Duty
d. Liability
Definition
The term authority is commonly used to refer to a supervisor's right to give orders and expect those orders to be obeyed.
Term
Planning generally involves which of the following?
a. Selecting future courses of action
b. Ensuring product quality
c. Troubleshooting technical problems
d. Rewarding effective behavior
Definition
The planning process generally involves selecting future courses of action designed to achieve a desired result.
Term
Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to a plan that applies to an entire organization?
a. Strategic
b. Sectional
c. Tactical
d. Operational
Definition
Strategic plans, also known as corporate plans, are plans that apply to an entire organization.
Term
Supervisory plans are usually derived from plans of
a. subordinates.
b. inventory control.
c. managerial peers.
d. upper management.
Definition
Supervisory plans are generally derived from the plans of higher levels of management. Upper management establishes general plans, which are then developed in detail at the supervisory level.
Term
Policies, rules, and procedures are examples of
a. single-use plans.
b. strategic plans.
c. standing plans.
d. supervisory plans.
Definition
Policies, rules, and procedures are examples of plans that are used repeatedly over a period of time. These repeated plans are known as standing plans, or repeated-use plans.
Term
Effective objectives are generally
a. broad.
b. numerous.
c. measurable.
d. verbal.
Definition
Effective objectives are generally measurable. They should also be specific, limited in number, and expressed in writing.
Term
Objectives serve which of the following functions?
a. Assessment
b. Motivation
c. Evaluation
d. Feedback
Definition
Objectives help individuals focus their attention on what to accomplish. They serve to motivate and encourage effort.
Term
Which of the following is usually established first within the strategic planning process?
a. Contingency plan
b. Mission statement
c. Standing plan
d. Worker objectives
Definition
A mission statement defines the overall philosophy and purpose of an organization. It is usually developed as the first step in establishing a strategic plan for an organization.
Term
Which of the following reflects the primary difference between the two scheduling methods known as CPM (critical path method) and PERT (program evaluation and review technique)?
a. PERT notes the dependences of project activities on each other, while CPM does not note the dependencies of project activities on each other.
b. CPM notes the dependences of project activities on each other, while PERT does not note the dependencies of project activities on each other.
c. PERT is generally used for projects with activities of certain duration, while CPM is used for projects with activities of unknown duration.
d. CPM is generally used for projects with activities of certain duration, while PERT is used for projects with activities of unknown duration.
Definition
The major difference between the two methods is that CPM is generally used for projects with activities of known duration that can be estimated with relative certainty. PERT is generally used for projects with activities whose durations are unknown or variable.
Term
Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the phase of the planning process in which a supervisor determines how objectives will be achieved?
a. Human resource planning
b. Action planning
c. Unified planning
d. Agenda setting
Definition
Action planning is the term used to refer to the part of the planning process in which a supervisor determines how objectives will be achieved. Once objectives are established, action plans are then developed and implemented.
Term
A supervisor can effectively delegate which of the following types of tasks?
a. Conflict resolution
b. Routine duties
c. Assignment of work
d. Handling motivation problems
Definition
Routine duties are minor tasks that are usually performed daily. Supervisors can generally delegate routine duties to subordinates.
Term
Which of the following tools is used by supervisors to track how their time is spent?
a. Time management matrix
b. Priority chart
c. Time log
d. Pareto graph
Definition
Time logs, also known as time-use charts or time inventories, are used by supervisors to track how their time is spent. The time management matrix classifies activities by whether they are "important or not important" and "urgent or nonurgent."
Term
Older, more established organizations tend to be organized according to which of the following structures?
a. Line and staff organization
b. One-person organization
c. Line organization
d. One-person with assistants
Definition
Older, more established organizations tend to be organized with line and staff organizational structures. As a business grows, it often needs to add staff to help the line departments achieve their objectives.
Term
Which of the following types of authority is based directly on the relationship between a supervisor and his or her employees?
a. Staff authority
b. Centralized authority
c. Parity
d. Line authority
Definition
Line authority is based directly on the supervisor-employee relationship. Staff authority, by contrast, is oriented toward facilitating the efforts of line personnel.
Term
In a highly centralized organization, decisions are most likely to be made by
a. supervisors.
b. middle management.
c. top management.
d. team members.
Definition
A high degree of centralization indicates that decisions are largely made by the top management of an organization.
Term
Which of the following organizations is most likely to have a highly centralized structure?
a. An organization that is spread out over diverse geographic locations.
b. An organization that has grown by acquiring other companies.
c. An organization that has few well-qualified and well-trained managers.
d. An organization that has an effective control system for monitoring performance.
Definition
If an organization has relatively few well-qualified managers, it will likely be highly centralized. High centralization relieves poorly qualified managers from decision-making responsibility and ensures that the company's most important decisions are made by top management.
Term
Which of the following most likely represents a disadvantage of decentralization?
a. Lower level managers have higher job satisfaction.
b. Decisions are made and implemented more expediently.
c. Top management has less control over day-to-day decision making.
d. Top management is free to focus on important organizational priorities
Definition
In a decentralized organization, top managers must relinquish control over day-to-day decision making. This can be a drawback of decentralization, especially for top managers who like to maintain tight control over their organizations.
Term
Each of the following represents one of the major types of organizational structure EXCEPT
a. matrix.
b. functional.
c. productivity.
d. divisional.
Definition
Productivity does not represent a major type of organizational structure. Organizations may generally be departmentalized according to the types of products produced, but not according to productivity levels.
Term
A matrix structure is most likely to combine which two types of departmentalization?
a. Functional and divisional
b. Functional and customer
c. Customer and geographical
d. Product and geographical
Definition
Matrix structures are most likely to combine the functional and divisional approaches to departmentalization. Workers in a matrix structure belong to both formal groups at the same time.
Term
Matrix structures are also commonly referred to using which of the following terms?
a. Technical structure
b. Project structure
c. Informal structure
d. Radical structure
Definition
Matrix structures are also known by the name of project structures. In addition, they may be called grid structures or product management structures.
Term
Span of control is important within an organization because it determines the
a. number of goals that an organization seeks to accomplish
b. number of routine tasks an employee is assigned
c. number of levels and managers in an organization
d. percentage of employees retained by an organization
Definition
Span of control refers to the number of employees managed by a single manager. The span of control of an organization determines how many levels and managers the organization has.
Term
The number of individuals that a manager can effectively supervise
a. is generally accepted to be 12 persons.
b. is generally accepted to be 5–7 persons.
c. varies depending upon different organizational factors.
d. is generally accepted to be 3–8 persons.
Definition
Management research has concluded that there is no single most effective span of control for every organization. Instead, the most effective span of control for managers varies from organization to organization. Span of control depends on organizational factors including the manager's skill, the types of employees to be supervised, the nature of the jobs performed, and the technology involved in those jobs.
Term
Span of control is also known as
a. unity of command.
b. unity of direction.
c. organizational span.
d. span of management.
Definition
The term span of control is also known as span of management. This term refers to the number of subordinates supervised by one manager.
Term
Which of the following helps to preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority within an organization?
a. Unity of command
b. Delegation
c. Managerial duty
d. Equal opportunity
Definition
The principle of unity of command dictates that each employee should report directly to only one superior. This principle helps to preserve unbroken lines of authority within organizations.
Term
Which of the following management principles dictates that workers should receive orders from only one superior?
a. Centralization
b. Unity of direction
c. Subordination of the individual
d. Unity of command
Definition
The principle of unity of command dictates that each worker should receive orders from only one superior. The principle of unity of direction states that each organization should have one common goal and focus on that goal in all of its efforts.
Term
The supervisory function of staffing generally involves each of the following activities EXCEPT
a. hiring.
b. recruiting.
c. training.
d. measuring performance.
Definition
Measuring employee performance is normally considered part of a supervisor's controlling function.
Term
Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the list of the personal characteristics required to perform a job?
a. Job specification
b. Job posting
c. Job analysis
d. Job description
Definition
A job specification is a list of personal characteristics required to perform a job. Job specifications normally include education, training, skills, and personal qualities such as sociability. Job descriptions are written statements describing the responsibilities of a job, including physical demands, working conditions, and equipment used.
Term
Which of the following terms is commonly used to describe the process of gathering information relevant to the performance of specific jobs?
a. Job analysis
b. Performance evaluation
c. Position control
d. Job specification
Definition
Job analysis is the term commonly used to refer to the process of gathering information related to the performance of a certain job.
Term
Which of the following laws prohibits discrimination based on physical or mental disabilities by private employers with more than 15 employees?
a. Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972
b. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
c. Rehabilitation Act of 1973
d. Civil Service Reform Act of 1978
Definition
The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 prohibits private employers with more than 15 employees from discriminating based on physical or mental disabilities. The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 prohibits job discrimination based on disabilities, but this act did not apply to private employers.
Term
Each of the following represents an example of a protected group EXCEPT
a. elderly workers.
b. minorities.
c. disabled persons.
d. clerical workers.
Definition
Clerical workers are not considered to be a protected group. Protected groups are comprised of people who share certain characteristics, such as age, disability, or race, among others. Members of protected groups cannot be discriminated against in their employment based on their particular protected characteristics.
Term
The Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988 resulted in
a. prevention of lie detector use in worker's compensation cases only.
b. incorporation of lie detector use for employee hiring and firing.
c. incorporation of lie detector use in employee hiring but not investigations.
d. prevention of lie detector use in most employment decisions.
Definition
The Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988 prohibited the use of lie detectors in most employment decisions.
Term
Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the process by which an organization's employees submit applications to an open position within the organization?
a. Promotions
b. Job bidding
c. Job posting
d. Transfers
Definition
Job bidding is the process whereby an organization's employees apply to be considered for an open position within an organization.
Term
Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the publicizing of a job vacancy within an organization?
a. Job specification
b. Job bidding
c. Job posting
d. Job recruiting
Definition
Job posting involves the placement of notices regarding job vacancies on bulletin boards or in newsletters throughout an organization.
Term
Each of the following represents an advantage of the structured interview technique EXCEPT the
a. same types of information are gathered about all applicants.
b. structure ensures that all questions are asked of all interviewees.
c. interviews help minimize the personal bias of the interviewer.
d. interviews encourage applicants to talk freely and in depth.
Definition
Structured interviews are governed by a predetermined set of questions and objectives. Unlike unstructured interviews, which have no set questions, structured interviews do not generally encourage applicants to talk freely and in depth. Instead, they focus the applicant's responses around particular topics.
Term
The process of introducing a newly hired employee to an organization and to his or her job is known as
a. orientation.
b. training.
c. internship.
d. apprenticeship.
Definition
Orientation is the term used to refer to the process of introducing a newly hired employee to an organization and to his or her position. Training involves teaching an employee the skills and knowledge required to perform his or her job. Internships and apprenticeships are both forms of training.
Term
Each of the following is commonly used to identify training needs EXCEPT



a. analysis of job requirements.

b. analysis of job performance.

c. polygraph test results.

d. supervisor's recommendations.
Definition
Polygraph (lie detector) tests are not commonly used in the process of identifying training needs. Instead, they are used during preemployment security checks and during company investigations when there is a specific loss.
Term
Employee orientations generally include all of the following EXCEPT



a. giving a tour of the organization.

b. explaining the telephone system.

c. introducing the new employee to coworkers.

d. interviewing employees to determine their skills
Definition
Orientations do not generally involve interviewing employees to determine their skills. Instead, interviews are normally conducted during the selection process, to assess whether a candidate is the right fit for a job.
Term
Which of the following presents the steps of the staffing process in the correct order?



a. Orienting, training, selecting, evaluating

b. Hiring, training, screening, interviewing

c. Recruiting, orienting, hiring, training

d. Interviewing, hiring, orienting, training
Definition
New employees are generally interviewed first, before they are hired. After they are hired, employees are oriented both to their jobs and to the organization. After orientation, employees are then trained to perform their jobs effectively.
Term
A leader who allows group members to make group decisions with little or no guidance is known as a(n)



a. directive leader.

b. supportive leader.

c. autocratic leader.

d. laissez-faire leader.
Definition
A laissez-faire leader allows followers to make decisions with little or no guidance. An autocratic leader rarely allows followers to contribute to decision making, if at all.
Term
Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the ability to influence others to set and achieve goals?



a. Planning

b. Authority

c. Leadership

d. Power
Definition
Leadership is commonly defined as the ability to influence others to set and achieve goals. Power is the ability to influence the behavior of others, but power may or may not be directed toward achieving goals. Planning is concerned with setting goals, but it does not include influencing others to achieve goals.
Term
Successful supervisors work with informal leaders by



a. recognizing them.

b. overpowering them.

c. eliminating them.

d. submitting to them.
Definition
Informal leaders may sometimes challenge a supervisor's formal leadership. Successful supervisors deal with informal leaders by recognizing them and learning to work with them, rather than by overpowering, eliminating, or submitting to them.
Term
Leaders can improve employee morale through all of the following EXCEPT



a. following through on promises.

b. rewarding favored employees.

c. encouraging employee input.

d. showing concern for employees' feelings.
Definition
Showing favoritism is likely to decrease morale among employees. To improve employee attitudes, supervisors should treat subordinates equally.
Term
Motivation is best characterized as the



a. propensity of individuals to respond to rewards.

b. willingness of individuals and groups to strive toward a goal.

c. tendency of individuals to meet others' expectations of them.

d. likelihood that an individual will behave unpredictably.
Definition
Motivation is best characterized as the willingness of individuals and groups to strive to achieve a goal.
Term
Which of the following is an example of a hygiene factor?



a. Recognition

b. Advancement

c. Poor job security

d. Challenging work
Definition
According to the research of Frederick Herzberg, a hygiene factor is a job-related factor that employees find dissatisfying. Poor job security is an example of a hygiene factor, or a dissatisfier.
Term
Which of the following persons developed the theory that the degree of an individual's effort is related to his or her expectation of rewards?



a. Victor Vroom

b. Edwin Locke

c. Frederick Herzberg

d. Abraham Maslow
Definition
Victor Vroom developed expectancy theory, which states that an individual's effort is based in part on his or her expectations of rewards and the perceived value of those rewards.
Term
To be effective, praise for employee efforts should NOT be



a. specific in nature.

b. provided to soften acceptance of criticism.

c. given authentically, without conditions.

d. provided immediately following a positive behavior.
Definition
Effective praise is given for its own sake, not to soften acceptance of difficult news such as criticism. Praise should be given in a timely manner, as close as possible to performance of a desired behavior.
Term
Which of the following terms refers to the process of determining and communicating how well an employee is performing on the job?



a. Job direction

b. Performance appraisal

c. Due process

d. Disciplinary hearing
Definition
Performance appraisals are conducted to determine and communicate how well an employee is performing on the job.
Term
Which of the following represents a significant drawback of graphic rating scales for evaluating employee performance?



a. This method provides different information for every employee.

b. Use of this method depends on the writing skills of a supervisor.

c. Graphic rating scales are costly to develop.

d. Supervisors tend to rate all employees slightly above average
Definition
In using graphic rating scales, supervisors tend to rate all employees slightly above average. This constitutes a significant drawback of the graphic rating scales approach.
Term
Which of the following does NOT reflect a principle purpose of employee performance evaluations?



a. Improving employee performance

b. Preparing employees for promotions

c. Providing a record of employee performance

d. Teaching an employee new skills
Definition
Performance appraisals are not used for the purpose of teaching employees new skills. Employees generally learn new skills during the training process.
Term
The traditional approach to performance evaluation focuses on appraisal by



a. objectives.

b. peers.

c. customers.

d. subordinates.
Definition
The traditional approach to performance evaluation focuses on appraisal by objectives. More innovative approaches to performance evaluation focus on appraisals by peers, subordinates, and even customers.
Term
Each of the following represents a challenge of working with diverse employees EXCEPT



a. employees cannot be fit into a single corporate mold.

b. communication problems may likely be reduced.

c. human resource policies must be revised to recognize unique needs of diverse employees.

d. verbal and written materials may need to be translated into several languages.
Definition
The diversity of today's workforce is likely to increase communication problems, rather than reduce them.
Term
The glass ceiling is most likely to be experienced by which of the following employees in an organization?



a. The male owner of the company

b. A male employee in the company

c. A male supervisor in the company

d. A female employee in the company
Definition
The glass ceiling refers to an "invisible" discrimination barrier faced by women that prevents them from being promoted into higher levels of management. A female employee in a company is most likely to experience the glass ceiling
Term
Protected-group status applies to an employee in which of the following age groups?



a. 20 – 25 years old

b. 18 – 21 years old

c. 30 – 35 years old

d. 45 – 50 years old
Definition
An employee in the 45–50-year-old age group has protected-group status. Employment law prevents discrimination against employees over age 40.
Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding supervision of a diverse workforce?



a. It is illegal to take disciplinary action against protected-group employees.

b. When disciplining protected-group employees, supervisors must justify their actions with adequate documentation.

c. Employment law prohibits the discriminatory discipline of protected-group employees.

d. An organization can face legal liability for discriminating against an employee with a physical handicap.
Definition
It is not illegal to take disciplinary action against protected-group employees. It is illegal to discriminate when administering disciplinary action to protected-group employees.
Term
Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the procedure used by a supervisor to take action against an employee who has violated organizational rules?



a. Promotion

b. Grievance

c. Transfer

d. Discipline
Definition
When a supervisor wishes to take action against an employee who has broken company rules, the supervisor uses the company's discipline procedure. Grievance procedures are used to resolve employee complaints against an organization.
Term
Which of the following steps generally comes first in a formal discipline procedure?



a. Oral warning

b. Suspension

c. Written warning

d. Discharge
Definition
Formal discipline procedures generally start with an oral warning.
Term
A suspension generally results in all of the following outcomes EXCEPT



a. depriving the employee of his or her income.

b. depriving the organization of a necessary worker.

c. costing the company more than any other form of discipline.

d. negatively impacting the employee's attitude about the company.
Definition
While suspensions can be costly, they are not the most costly form of employee discipline. In general, discharges are the most costly form of employee discipline.
Term
Which of the following is LEAST likely to assist a supervisor in maintaining effective discipline?
a. Correcting behavior with a minimum of discipline
b. Enforcing organizational policies in a consistent manner
c. Overlooking minor rule violations by high-performing employees
d. Avoiding periods of lax disciplinary enforcement
Definition
The correct answer is C. To maintain effective discipline, supervisors must refrain from overlooking rule violations by favored employees. Instead, rules and procedures should be enforced fairly among all employees.
Term
Which of the following generally represents the final step in a grievance procedure?
a. Discharge
b. Resignation
c. Arbitration
d. Informal complaint
Definition
The correct answer is C. Arbitration usually represents the final step in a grievance procedure. A grievance procedure normally starts with an informal complaint.
Term
Effective discipline is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
a. immediacy.
b. partiality.
c. consistency.
d. advance warning.
Definition
The correct answer is B. Effective discipline should impartial, rather than partial or biased. It should be applied to every employee in the same manner.
Term
Employee counseling is recommended in which of the following circumstances?
a. When an employee is going through a divorce
b. When an employee shows signs of a severe personality disorder
c. After an employee has been discharged
d. Before implementing a strict disciplinary penalty
Definition
The correct answer is D. Before a supervisor imposes a strict disciplinary penalty, an employee should receive counseling to uncover the underlying problems affecting his or her behavior. Employee counseling is not appropriate for addressing significant psychological problems, such as personality disorders. It is also not appropriate for addressing personal problems such as divorce, unless such problems are affecting employee performance.
Term
Employee counseling generally results in all of the following EXCEPT
a. trust.
b. productivity.
c. tension.
d. reassurance.
Definition
The correct answer is C. Employee counseling generally tends to reduce tension that an employee may experience regarding work-related issues.
Term
Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the process of helping employees reach their highest level of performance?
a. Feedback
b. Compensation
c. Incentives
d. Coaching
Definition
The correct answer is D. Coaching is the term given to the process of helping employees reach their highest level of performance.
Term
Each of the following is an example of an employee coaching situation EXCEPT
a. discussing ways to improve unsatisfactory work.
b. helping an employee plan for career advancement.
c. arbitrating an employee grievance.
d. helping an employee with stress reduction.
Definition
The correct answer is C. Arbitration is not an example of employee coaching. Employee coaching involves helping an employee to improve his or her performance.
Term
Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the process of comparing actual performance to planned performance?
a. Standardization
b. Controlling
c. Feedback
d. Management by exception
Definition
The correct answer is B. Controlling is the process of comparing actual performance to planned performance.
Term
Each of the following represents a type of control system EXCEPT
a. feedforward.
b. registration.
c. feedback.
d. concurrent.
Definition
The correct answer is B. The three types of control systems are feedforward, concurrent, and feedback.
Term
Which of the following is an example of a monetary standard?
a. Profit margin
b. Number of items produced
c. High morale
d. Rates of production
Definition
The correct answer is A. Monetary standards are expressed in financial terms. A profit margin is an example of a monetary standard.
Term
Under management by exception, which of the following steps would a supervisor take if actual performance meets established standards?
a. Take no action.
b. Analyze the deviation.
c. Evaluate the cause of the deviation.
d. Correct the cause of the deviation.
Definition
The correct answer is A. Under management by exception, a supervisor would take action only when actual performance deviates from established standards to an exceptional degree. If actual performance meets established standards, then no deviation has occurred. The supervisor would therefore take no action.
Term
Which of the following statements best characterizes corrective actions?
a. Corrective actions should always provide positive reinforcement.
b. Corrective actions should always be harsh.
c. It is not crucial for an employee to understand why a corrective action is necessary, as long as the corrective action resolves the problem.
d. Corrective actions should be tailored to each specific situation.
Definition
The correct answer is D. Corrective actions should be tailored to each individual situation. Some situations call for positive reinforcement, while others call for harsh responses. Employees should always be told why corrective actions are necessary.
Term
Which of the following represents an example of Murphy's Law?
a. "Left to themselves, things always go from worse to better."
b. "There's never time to do it over, but always time to do it right."
c. "If anything can go wrong, it will."
d. "If you think nothing can go wrong, then nothing will go wrong."
Definition
The correct answer is C. Murphy's Law centers around expecting problems to happen. One of the laws states that "if anything can go wrong, it will."
Term
Which of the following represents a forecast of expected financial performance over a defined time period?
a. Budget
b. Monetary standard
c. Cost savings
d. Cost control
Definition
The correct answer is A. A budget represents a forecast of expected financial performance over a period of time.
Term
Which of the following represents a control function?
a. Preparing a budget
b. Administering a budget
c. Motivating employees
d. Hiring employees
Definition
The correct answer is B. The administration of a budget is a control function. Preparing a budget is mostly a planning function.
Term
Which of the following types of budgets would be developed to represent numbers of machines used by an organization?
a. Material budget
b. Financial budget
c. Equipment budget
d. Expense budget
Definition
The correct answer is C. Budgets are not always expressed in terms of dollars. Equipment budgets might be developed, for instance, to represent the number of machines used by an organization.
Term
Which of the following is commonly included in the definition of sexual harassment in the workplace?
a. Creates a hostile work environment
b. Precipitates employee strikes
c. Requires advance planning
d. Leads to positive outcomes
Definition
The correct answer is A. Sexual harassment is commonly defined as unwanted sexual advances or sexual discrimination that fosters a hostile work environment.
Term
Which of the following is an example of sexual harassment?
a. Demoting individuals based on family ties within the company
b. Discrimination based on an employee's gender
c. Rewarding an employee for meeting sales quotas
d. Terminating an employee due to discipline problems
Definition
The correct answer is B. Sexual discrimination is included as part of the definition of sexual harassment. Discrimination based on an employee's gender is considered to create a hostile work environment.
Term
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) has responsibility for carrying out all of the following EXCEPT
a. fining businesses judged to be unsafe.
b. regulating hazardous waste management.
c. record-keeping and reporting of accidents.
d. controlling workplace noise pollution.
Definition
The correct answer is B. Hazardous waste management is regulated by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). The remaining responsibilities are carried out by OSHA.
Term
A moderate degree of short-term workplace stress is considered to be
a. negative, because it can lead to debilitating physical symptoms.
b. negative, because it places employees under performance pressure.
c. positive, because it can motivateemployees to superior performance.
d. positive, because it increases the degree of environmental uncertainty.
Definition
The correct answer is C. While high degrees of stress are generally viewed as negative, moderate degrees of stress can have value for employees over the short term. Moderate stress encourages employees to perform at or near their maximum, which enhances job performance.
Term
individual's job is too difficult?
a. Social stress
b. Role stress
c. Task stress
d. Burnout
Definition
The correct answer is C. Task stress is the term commonly used to refer to the stress produced when a job or task is too difficult. Role stress occurs when an individual is confused as to exactly what he or she should be doing on the job.
Term
Which of the following tends to reduce a person's sensitivity to job stress?
a. Experience on the job
b. Hostility
c. Negative self-concept
d. Technological change
Definition
The correct answer is A. Experience on the job tends to be negatively related to work stress. Individuals who remain with an organization longer tend to be more resistant to the stress encountered on the job. Over time, individuals also develop coping mechanisms for managing their stress.
Term
In a unionized environment, which of the following serves as the primary link between the organization and the union members?
a. Labor leader
b. Attorney
c. Supervisor
d. Union secretary
Definition
The correct answer is C. In a unionized environment, it is the supervisor who serves as the primary link between the organization and union members.
Term
Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to an agreement between an employee and management that the employee will not join a labor union?
a. Yellow dog contract
b. Injunction
c. Union shop act
d. Disclosure agreement
Definition
The correct answer is A. Yellow dog contracts are agreements between employees and management that the employee will refrain from joining a labor union, as a condition of his or her employment. Yellow dog contracts were made illegal by the Norris-La Guardia Act of 1932.
Term
Each of the following is generally associated with high employee productivity EXCEPT
a. high morale.
b. high turnover.
c. low absenteeism.
d. low number of grievances.
Definition
The correct answer is B. Turnover occurs when employees leave an organization. High productivity is generally associated with low employee turnover rates.
Term
Productivity is a measure of an organization's
a. output.
b. profit.
c. efficiency.
d. stability.
Definition
The correct answer is C. Productivity is also referred to by the term efficiency. Essentially, productivity measures how efficiently an organization performs.
Term
Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to a quality control approach that builds in quality instead of controlling quality through inspections?
a. Quality assurance
b. Standards management
c. Process control
d. Reengineering
Definition
The correct answer is A. Quality assurance is an approach to quality management that involves "building in" quality rather than achieving quality through the inspection process.
Term
The international quality standards established by ISO 14000 pertain to which of the following areas?
a. Manufacturing
b. Customer service
c. Environmental management
d. Research and development
Definition
The correct answer is C. The voluntary standards established by ISO 14000 pertain specifically to environmental management tools and systems.
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