Term
|
Definition
| - CD4+, monocytes, macrophages |
|
|
Term
Opportunistic Diseases of AIDS patients
(AIDS defining illnesses) |
|
Definition
| - protazoal, fungal, viral, bacterial |
|
|
Term
| protazoal AIDS defining illnesses |
|
Definition
| - toxoplasmosis of the brain, cryptosporidiosis with diarrhea, isosporiasis with diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| fungal AIDS defining illnesses |
|
Definition
- candidiasis of the esophagus, trachea and lungs
- pneumocystis pneumonia
- extrapulmonary cryptococcosis
- disseminated histoplasmosis
- disseminated coccidioidomycosis |
|
|
Term
| viral AIDS defining illnesses |
|
Definition
| - cytomegaloviris disease, herpes simplex, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, hairy leukoplakia caused by epstein-barr virus |
|
|
Term
| bacterial AIDS defining illnesses |
|
Definition
| - mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex, any atypical mycobacterial disease, extrapulmonary TB, salmonella septicemia, pyogenic bacterial infections |
|
|
Term
| opportunistic neoplasias (new growth) |
|
Definition
- kaposi's sarcoma
- primary lymphoma of the brain
- other non-hodgkin's lymphomas |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Low p24 concentrations in ____. |
|
|
Term
| HIV transmission by saliva is stopped by... |
|
Definition
- endogenous mucosal barriers
- neutralization by anti-HIV antibodies
- broad spectrum innate factors
- viral entrapment and aggregation
- inhibition of HIV entry into target cells |
|
|
Term
| broad-spectrum innate factors |
|
Definition
| - lysozyme, lactoferrin, defensins and lactoperoxidase |
|
|
Term
| SLPI (secretory leukocyte protease inhibitor) |
|
Definition
| - inhibits entry of HIV into target cell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
- measures IgG and IgM
- partial agglutination |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - confirms HIV infection based on IgG |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - ELISA, particle agglutination, antigen capture |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - Western Blot and immunofluorescence |
|
|
Term
| antiretroviral therapy should be offered |
|
Definition
- decreased CD4+ counts (<350)
- symptomatic disease
- regardless of HIV-1 RNA level |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- nucleoside and nucleotide analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- non-nucleoside reverse transcritse inhibitors (NNRTI)
- protease inhibitors
- entry inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| nucleoside and nucleotide analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors |
|
Definition
- blocks DNA --> RNA
- zidovudine (AZT)
- binds to reverse transcriptase |
|
|
Term
| HAART or combination therapy |
|
Definition
- 3 drugs
- typically 2 nucleoside analogue RT inhibitors with either a protease inhibitor or an NNRTI |
|
|
Term
| monitoring progression of HIV infection |
|
Definition
- CD4+ t cell count
- HIV1 RNA/viral load
- p24 antigen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- correlate with risk of developing opportunistic infections
- main way to monitor progression of HIV |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- real time RT-PCR or branched chain DNA
- most sensitive indicator of viral replication
- every 3-4 months for patient on HAART |
|
|
Term
| Opportunistic infection, Protozoal, Fungal, Viral, Bacterial |
|
Definition
| An _________ _______ is a common indicator for HIV or AIDS, and has different types such as _________ (ie. Toxoplasmosis of the brain), _________ (ie. Candidiasis of the esophagus), _________ (ie. Leukoplakia caused by EBV) and _________ (ie. TB or recurrent mycobacterial disease). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The Epstein Barr Virus (EBV) is the cause of ________. |
|
|
Term
| neoplasms, kaposi's Sarcoma, lymphoma of the brain, other non-hodgkin's lymphomas |
|
Definition
| Some AIDS defining illnesses are opportunistic __________ (meaning “new growth/tumors) and include Kaposi’s ________,which is the 1st indication of AIDS, primary _________ of the brain, and other non- _________ _________. |
|
|
Term
| Wasting, encephalopathy, pneumonia |
|
Definition
| Other AIDS defining illnesses include HIV _______ syndrome (found mostly in Africa), HIV ______________ and lymphoid interstitial ___________. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F? Saliva is a true risk factor for the contraction of HIV? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Saliva becomes a risk when it is mixed with ____. |
|
|
Term
| male to male sexual contact (50%) |
|
Definition
| Out of several groups at risk for AIDS, the groups at highest risk is ________. |
|
|
Term
| pH, HIV RNA and proviral DNA |
|
Definition
| Saliva has poor HIV transmission because of it low ___ from oral fluids; however, HIV ____ and proviral ____ have been detected in saliva. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Endogenous mucosal barriers are _______ in the oral cavity that can be neutralized by anti-HIV antibodies. |
|
|
Term
| Lysozyme, lactoferrin, defensins, and lactoperoxidase |
|
Definition
| A broad spectrum of innate factors regarding transmission by saliva are: (4) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Viral entrapment and aggregation can be achieved by _______. |
|
|
Term
| SLPI, secretory leuokocyte protease inhibitor |
|
Definition
| The inhibition of HIV entry into target cells is _______ which stands for____ _____ _____ _____. It was 1st assumed that this had an affect if the virus itself, but it has been proven that it affects the host, and it prevents HIV from entering the cell. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| AIDS is more common in ______ than _______. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| . The highest group diagnosed with HIV is ____ - ____ year olds. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| There have been _________ new HIV infections in the US in 06. |
|
|
Term
| stabilized since the late 1990s |
|
Definition
| The number of new infections has ________- since the late ______’s. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| HIV screening is recommended for patients in all _________ _______ after consent is given but the patient the right to refuse. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Persons at high risk for HIV infections should be screened at least _____ a year. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| _______ ______ for medical care is sufficient to include consent for HIV testing. |
|
|
Term
| Sensitive screening tests, highly specific confirmatory assay, based on antibodies to HIV, 6weeks to 2 months |
|
Definition
| To diagnose HIV properly, they must use __________ screening tests, highly _________ __________ assay, and it must be based on _________ to HIV at least ___ weeks to ___ months to allow antibodies to develop. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Current HIV tests usually take approximately ____ weeks because they are more ________. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| _____ antigen can be detected early and HIV______ even earlier. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The HIV screening test most commonly used is _______ or ___ which are enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The ELISA screening test and the particle agglutination test measures ____ and ____ to detect HIV. |
|
|
Term
| IgG, Western Blot, immunofluorescence |
|
Definition
| HIV confirmatory assays confirm HIV infection using ____, the _________ ______ which is a type of electrophoresis which is very specific, and _______________. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| _________ therapy does not KILL anything, and it must be individualized |
|
|
Term
| risks and benefits, detectable, adverse, resistance |
|
Definition
| With Antiviral therapy, the patient must consider the ______ and ________ of therapy and that therapy can be beneficial to anyone with any __________ plasma HIV-1 RNA because they have ________ effects (like becoming resistant to it) and the viral ________. |
|
|
Term
| CD4 and T cells below 350 cells and symptomatic disease is present regardless of HIV-1 or RNA levels |
|
Definition
| AntiRETROviral therapy is only beneficial when _____ and ______ cell counts are decreased below _____ cells, when a ________ disease is present and regardless of _____-1 or _____ level. |
|
|
Term
| cannot cure or expel virus, but can lower cell count to undetectable level |
|
Definition
| Antiviral therapies cannot ______ you, they cannot _______ the virus from your body, but they can lower your ________ count to an undetectable level (although the virus is still able to spread). |
|
|
Term
| Nucleoside, nucleotide, transcriptase, Non-nucleoside, transcriptase, Protease, Entry |
|
Definition
| There are 4 types of antiviral therapies available: (1) ___________ and _________ analogue reverse ____________ inhibitors (which include Zidovudone AKA AZT, which was the 1st used), (2) ___________ reverse ___________ inhibitors, (3) __________ inhibitors (which interfere with protein that is part of the virus) and (4) _______ inhibitors AKA “fusion inhibitor” (prevents gp41 from allowing the entry of the virus into the cell). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The _________ AKA _____________ therapy targets 2 areas of multiplication using 3 drugs, typically 2 nucleoside analogue RT inhibitors with either a protease inhibitor of an NNRTI. |
|
|
Term
| Improves, declining, eliminate, control, prolongs, protease, resistance |
|
Definition
| HAART therapy greatly ________ the prognosis for HIV + people, it is a major factor in ________ death rates from HIV/AIDS infection, it does not ________ HIV but it does provide long term ______ of viral replication and _________ disease free survival, multiple reverse transcriptase and ________ inhibitors’ are effective in this therapy and it reduces the potential from development of __________. |
|
|
Term
| CD4, T-cell, branched, sensitive, replication, 3-4, p24, Africa |
|
Definition
| In order to properly monitor HIV, a person should consider having 3 things done: (1) they should have _____ and _______ counts done, because these correlate with the risk of developing an opportunistic infection, (2)should use HIV-1 RNA/ viral load which is real time ___________ chain DNA analysis because it is the most ________ indicators of viral __________, and it should be performed every __-__ months in patients on HAART, (3) and they should be tested for ______ Antigen, which has a much lower cost (mostly used in _______). |
|
|
Term
| Routine, notification, required, 3rd |
|
Definition
| In HIV testing for pregnant women, the screening test should be included in the _________ panel of prenatal screening tests, it does require __________ and the woman is not ________ to have this test performed, and it is also recommended that they repeat screening in their _____ trimester if they are subject to high risk factors. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ____ % of pregnant women will transmit HIV to their child if no ________ _________ is done. |
|
|
Term
| Pregnancy, c-section, transmission |
|
Definition
| Antiretroviral treatment is administered during _________ and having a __________ reduces the rate of _________ by 2% or less. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| If treatment is given during ______ and _______, it can reduce to less than 10%. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The first case of HIV in the US was in _______ in _____ _______ from big cities. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Data suggests that the 1st case of HIV infection occurred in ______ _______ in the year _______, and was believed to come from the _____ virus which was found in non-human primates. |
|
|
Term
| underreactivity, overreactivity |
|
Definition
| ____________ can indicate immunodeficiency disease or cancer whereas _________ can indicate hypersensitivity reactions. |
|
|
Term
| Allergies, Blood type incompatibilities, autoimmune diseases and Graft rejection |
|
Definition
| 4 common overreactivity or hypersensitivity reactions include: |
|
|
Term
| Immediate, seconds, 30, IgE, mast, eosinophils, peanuts, latex, pollen, penicillin, urticaria, asthma, angioedema, anaphylaxis |
|
Definition
| Type I hypersensitivity is ____________ hypersensitivity, the onset takes ________ to _______ minutes, it is created by ____, _____ cells, and ________, it is triggered by ________, ______, _______ and _______ and its symptoms include ________ (hives), _________, _________ (which is edema in the tissues) and _________(which can be fatal). |
|
|
Term
| Cell-bound antigen, seconds, hours, IgG, complement, phagocytosis, hemolysis, hemolytic |
|
Definition
| Type II hypersensitivity is ______-_______ _________, the onset is _______ to ______, it is created by ____, __________ and __________, and its symptoms include immune-mediated ________ and ________ disease of newborns. |
|
|
Term
| Immune complexes, 3-8, IgG, compliment, neutrophils, autoimmune, kidney, joints, skin, serum |
|
Definition
| Type III hypersensitivity is ________ _________, the onset is ___ - ___ hours, it is created by ___, ___________ and _________ (PMN’s), it is ________________ disease related, and its symptoms include depositions of immune complexes in the ________, ________ and _____ and Arthrus reactions such as ______ sickness. |
|
|
Term
| Delayed Hypersensitivity, 2-3, T-cells, macrophages, contact dermatitis |
|
Definition
| Type IV hypersensitivity is _________ _______________, the onset is ____- ____ days, it is created by ______ and __________ and causes _________ ________ (as immunological reaction, not irritation) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Type ___ is immune complexes and include rheumatoid arthritis and serum sickness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Type ___ involves B-cells and antibodies and is immediate and includes typical allergies among people, such as hay fever and anaphylaxis (which can lead to death) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Type ___ is cell-mediated, cytotoxic; it involves T-cells and includes contact dermatitis and graft rejection. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Type ___ is cell bound and is antibody medicated including blood type incompatibility. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An _________ is a condition of altered reactivity or exaggerated immune responsiveness to antigens manifested by inflammatory symptoms. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| __________ is the clinical manifestation of type I hypersensitivity reactions, eczema, asthma, rhinitis, and food allergy. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___________ is systematic type I hypersensitivity response that involves airway obstruction and circulatory collapse, and can be fatal. |
|
|
Term
| Inherited, genetic, E, mast, target, mediators, multiple, 10-30 |
|
Definition
| There are some predispositions for Type I allergies: __________ generalized susceptibility, not individual allergies; ___________ basis such as enhanced Ig__ production, increased reactivity of ______ cells and increased susceptibility of _______ tissue to allergic ___________; they may manifest __________ allergies; ____ - ____ % of population is prone to atopic allergy. |
|
|
Term
| Respiratory / Inhalants, GI tract / Ingestants, Injectants, Skin/mucous membrane / contactants |
|
Definition
| Here are some common exposures: _____________ / _____________ such as pollen, dust & dander from cat and dogs; ___ ________ / _____________ such as peanuts, shellfish, eggs fruit; ___________ such as bee stings and drugs; ________ / ____________ _____________ or ______________ such as cosmetics, heavy metals, detergents, chemicals and latex. |
|
|
Term
| Sensitizations, sensitizing dose, multiple, immune, Provocation, provocative dose |
|
Definition
| There are 2 ways to develop Type I allergies: (1) ____________ AKA ____________ _____ which can be the first exposure but usually requires __________exposures, and it primes the __________ system for subsequent encounters and no signs or symptoms; (2) _____________ AKA ____________ ________ that does have signs and symptoms. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Chemical mediators are produced by ________ cells and ____________, which include histamine, serotonin, leukotriene, platelet-activating factor, prostaglandins, bradykinin. (be familiar with these but don’t memorize). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| __________ stimulates smooth muscle rapidly. |
|
|
Term
| bronchioles, motility, vascular, edema, dialation, anaphylaxis |
|
Definition
| The stimulation of smooth muscles by histamine (1) constricts ____________ and causes increased __________ in intestine which causes diarrhea and troubled breathing, (2) relaxes ____________ smooth muscle which dilates artioles and venules and causes wheal and flare (hives) prutitis, and headache, and (3) _______ and vascular _________ leading to __________ which include hypertension, tachycardia, circulatory failure and shock or death. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| _________ increase vascular permeability (meaning fluid comes out of _________), capillary dilation, smooth muscle contraction, intestinal peristalsis and respiratory rate. |
|
|
Term
| Leukotriene, slow reacting substance |
|
Definition
| ___________ is the contraction of smooth muscle gradually and was once AKA SRS meaning ________ ______ _______. |
|
|
Term
| platelet-activating factor |
|
Definition
| __________ - ________ ________ is very similar to histamine. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ____________ are inflammatory mediators and increase sensitivity to pain. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ____________ lead to the contractions of bronchioles, increased capillary permeability and increased mucous secretion. |
|
|
Term
| Atopic, pollen or molds, airborne |
|
Definition
| _________ diseases AKA allergic rhinitis or hay fever is caused by seasonal allergies (like _______ or _____) and also by year round allergies (like __________ allergies). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Nasal congestion, sneezing, coughing, profuse mucous secretions, itchy red teary eyes and mild bronchoconstriction are some symptoms of _________ _________. |
|
|
Term
| Asthma, breathing, bronchoconstriction, suffocation, inflamed, allergens, psychological |
|
Definition
| One major atopic disease is _________ which includes impaired ______ due to severe ______________, can range from periodic episodes of difficulty breathing to fatal ___________, the respiratory tract is chronically __________, its extremely responsive to small amounts of _________ and symptoms have been linked to the ____________ state of the patient. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Another atopic disease, __________ __________ is an intensely itchy inflammatory condition of the skin which has characteristics such as reddened, vesicular secretions, weeping, encrusted skin lesions (eczemas) and is often seen in babies. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Another atopic disease is a _______ allergy, which has GI symptoms such as vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramps. |
|
|
Term
| Anaphylaxis, peanuts, milk, shellfish |
|
Definition
| Food allergies may lead to ___________ and the most common allergies are ________, fish, _____, eggs, ______ and soybeans. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Another atopic disease is ________ allergy which reactions range from mild atopic reactions to fatal anaphylaxis. |
|
|
Term
| Antibiotics, penicillin, sulfa, opiates, dyes |
|
Definition
| Common drug allergies include __________, especially __________, ________ drugs, aspirin, _______, and _____ used in radiology. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| There are 2 types of anaphylaxis: (1) ___________, which have wheal and flare inflammatory reactions (hives) and occur within less than 30 minutes and (2) __________ which is sudden respiratory and circulatory disruption which can quickly turn fatal. ---- The response for atophy is very similar but more intense---- |
|
|
Term
| Tryptase, mast, basophils, eosinophils, Histamine, serologic, E |
|
Definition
| When testing for allergies, clinicians measure (1) elevated levels of _________, which is an enzyme released by _______ cells, (2) increased levels of ________ and _______ in blood, (3) ___________ release test to specific allergens and (4) most commonly __________ tests for Ig __. |
|
|
Term
| Injection, allergens, 20, wheals, rate |
|
Definition
| Serological skin tests are performed by ________ of small amount of pure _______ intradermally into skin; After ____ minutes, they observe for _______ and _____ reactions. |
|
|
Term
| Avoid, drugs, block, desensitization |
|
Definition
| 3 ways to treat allergies are to _______ the allergen, take ______ to _______ actions or to undergo _____________ therapy. |
|
|
Term
| Antihistamines, Aspirin, Theophyline inhaler, epinephrine, Epinephrine inhaler |
|
Definition
| Drug treatment includes (1) ____________, which block the histamine receptors, (2)________ or NSAID’s which interfere with prostaglandins synthesis, (3) _____________ _______ which is a bronchodilator, (4) injectable ___________ which reverses the constriction of airways and slows release of chemical mediators, and FINALLY (5)__________ _______ which has the same effect as an epi-pen. |
|
|
Term
| Anti-inflammatory – corticosteroid, degranulation mast, leukotrienes |
|
Definition
| Some other drugs include(1) _____- _____________ or _____________ with reduce IgE production, (2) Drugs that block the __________ of _____ cells which reduce the levels of inflammatory mediators and (3) block synthesis of __________ which helps asthmatics and people with rhinitis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The final treatment for allergies is ___________ in which a clinician injects small amount of allergen, stimulate production of IgG to the allergen, IgG then acts as blocking antibodies to remove allergen from the system before IgE binds to IgE and it is estimated that 70% of patients benefit from desensitization. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
6) Patients infected w/ HIV usually take drugs which:
a. interfere with HIV replication
b. prevent other associated or opportunistic infections
c. eliminate HIV from the body
d. Both A and B only
e. A, B, C |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The HIV antigen, gp120, binds to: |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
11) The 1st symptomatic evidence of HIV infection may be:
a. repeated opportunistic infections
b. a flu-like illness
c. either a and b
d. neither a nor b |
|
|
Term
| b. results in synthesis of specific IgE antibodies |
|
Definition
12) The sensitizing dose for Type 1 allergic reactions:
a. stimulates the 1st clinical manifestations, such as hives
b. results in synthesis of specific IgE antibodies
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 13) A child w/ a history of hives after exposure to latex experiences respiratory distress within minutes after an intraoral exam using latex gloves. This reaction is probably mediated by Ig__, |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 16) The antibody synthesized during the sensitizing dose for Type 1 hypersensitivity is Ig__. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
17) Delayed hypersensitivity is synonymous w/ _____:
a. type 1
b. anaphylaxis
c. urticaria
d. hives
e. none of the above |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When IgE is bound to certain cells and comes in contact with its specific antigen, histamine is released. These cells are: |
|
|
Term
| T helper cells and macrophages |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A protein in saliva which prevents HIV entry into host cells and thus reduces the likelihood of infection from contact w/ HIV in saliva is ____. |
|
|
Term
| IV, chemical accelerators |
|
Definition
| Development of contact dermatitis within 18 hrs after donning latex gloves, is symptomatic of a type __ allergic reaction caused by water-soluble _______ ______. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| - primary pharmacologic mediator for Type 1 hypersensitivity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Wheal and urticaria is used to describe which reaction? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The contact w/ allergen that results in symptoms is called the ____ dose. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Symptoms of asthma develop as the direct result of _____. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hemolytic disease of the newborn is what type of hypersensitivity ? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Arthus reaction and serum sickness are characteristic of which type of hypersensitivity reaction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The initial attachment of HIV to host cells is via : |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which hypersensitivity reaction involves sensitized T-lymphocytes and macrophages? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The contact with allergen that does NOT result in symptoms is called the ____ dose. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Class of immunoglobulin responsible for anaphylaxis in humans is |
|
|
