Term
| Elements of Res Ipsa Loquitor |
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Definition
1. An injury that would not occur in the absence of negligence
2. Through an instrumentality in the exclusive control of the defendant.
3. Plaintiff did not contribute to the harm (not important in comparative negligence jurisdiction) |
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Term
| What is the Zone of Risk, what judge coined the term and what case did it come from? |
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Definition
1. The Zone of Risk is a term referring to an area of time or space that is tied to D's negligent act. If a plaintiff is not within the zone of risk, he is not considered a "foreseeable plaintiff" and thus the defendant does not owe that P a duty.
2. Cardozo
3. Palsgraf |
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Term
| Under what circumstances DOES a D owe P a duty to rescue? |
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Definition
Three circumstances:
1. When D has a created the need for P to be rescued.
2. When there is a special relationship between P and D
3. When D makes a voluntary undertaking to rescue P |
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Term
| Does D owe P an affirmative duty to alleviate consequences of his prior conduct? When? |
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Definition
Yes, under certain circumstances.
1. When a D negligently injures or threatens the safety of a P
2. In minority of jurisdictions, when D's non-negligent conduct creates a foreseeable risk of harm (such as knocking a telephone pole into the road)
3. Restatement 321 requires that when a D does an and and realizes or should realize that it creates and unreasonable risk has a duty to to exercise due care to prevent the risk from occurring |
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Term
| What are the special relationships as requiring an affirmative duty to act? |
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Definition
1. Innkeeper/Guest
2. Common carriers/customers
3. Owners of land thrown open to the public (invitee)
4. School/pupils
5. Hospital/patients
6. Jailers/Prisoners
7. Businesses to customers (invitee) |
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Term
| What was the rule from Morgan v. County of Yuba? |
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Definition
Establishes voluntary undertaking duty of care based upon reliance.
Elements
1. Affirmative promise on behalf of D
2. P's reliance on that promise
3. P would have acted differently without said reliance |
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Term
| Do writers of letters of recommendation regarding a previous employee to a potential employer owe a duty to third parties harmed by the employee after hiring by the potential employer? When? |
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Definition
| Yes, under certain circumstances. The writer of the LoR has a duty to third parties not to misrepresent information in the LoR if doing so presents a substantial and foreseeable risk of physical injury to that third person. Randi W. Rowland factors. |
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Term
| What are the Rowland factors? What are they used for? What is the most important factor? |
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Definition
The Rowland factors are:
1. Foreseeability of harm to P
2. Degree of certainty regarding harm
3. Connection between D's conduct and injury
4. Moral blame attached to D's conduct.
5. Policy of preventing future harm
6. Burden to D and consequences to community of imposing a duty
7. Availability of insurance
These factors are used to justify imposing a new special relationship requiring an affirmative duty/duty to third party
The most important is foreseeability of harm. |
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Term
| What are the elements for analyzing whether a statute imposes a duty upon a D, if the statute is silent as to whether or not it creates a duty? |
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Definition
Under Uhr, elements are:
1. P is in class of persons for whom statute was enacted
2. Duty promotes legislative purpose
3. Duty is consistent with legislative scheme |
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Term
| What duty did Tarasoff establish? |
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Definition
| Tarasoff established a duty of care to control/warn potential, foreseeable victims of a psychologist/psychiatrists client if the patient poses a serious danger of violence to others. |
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Term
| What did the Reynolds case establish regarding the duties of those furnishing alcohol to minors? |
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Definition
| Reynolds established that commercial hosts who serve alcohol to minors owe a duty to third parties injured by their conduct. Social hosts, however, do not because of policy reasons. |
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Term
| What is the doctrine of negligent entrustment? |
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Definition
The doctrine of negligent entrustment establishes a duty to both third parties and principals who are negligently provided with a chattel (property) that the supplier knows or should know the principal will use in a manner creating an unreasonable risk of physical harm to themselves or others.
Supplier's knowledge is key. |
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Term
| What tests can be used to determine if a provider of information has a duty regarding purely economic damages and what are the elements? |
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Definition
1. Near privity approach
- Those in contractual relations and those who are sufficiently close to it
-Intended a KNOWN 3rd party to rely on information
-3rd party DID rely
2. Restatement approach (MAJORITY)
-actual knowledge AT MOMENT INFO IS PUBLISHED by D
-regarding a limited group of potential 3rd parties who will rely on the information (AND DO)
-in a known, PARTICULAR transaction
3. Foreseeability approach
- duty arises if D could reasonably foresee that someone would receive and rely on information
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Term
| Under what circumstances is there a duty to prevent economic harm, not including providers of information? |
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Definition
| Generally, no duty to prevent economic harm. However, if economic loss is parasitic due to a bona fide physical injury, courts will allow recovery. Some courts may be willing to allow economic recovery if the economic harm is particularly foreseeable. |
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Term
| What case establishes that physical contact is not equivalent to physical impact for determining recovery of damages for negligent infliction of emotional distress? What were the reasons for finding a difference? |
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Definition
Metro-North v. Buckley. The reasons are:
1. Difficulty in separating valid from invalid/trivial claims
2. Threat of unlimited liability
3. Potential for flood of litigation |
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Term
| What is the modern majority approach to allowing recovery for negligent infliction of emotional distress? What are the elements? |
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Definition
The zone of danger test. Elements
1. Negligent conduct by D
2. Fear of immediate, personal injury (zone of danger)
3. Resulting emotional distress...
4. That is severe enough to be compensable as a consequence of ACTUAL physical injury |
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Term
| What is the exception to the zone of danger rule expressed in the Gammon case? |
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Definition
| A small minority of jurisdictions allow recovery for NIED when the P is foreseeable and where P has suffered SEVERE emotional distress of the sort that a reasonable, normally constituted person would be unable to cope. |
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Term
| What are the elements required for bystander recovery of damages inflicted by emotional distress in a Portee jurisdiction? |
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Definition
1. Death or serious injury of another caused by D's negligence
2. Marital or intimate family relationship (immediate family) between P and injured person.
3. Observation of the death or injury AT THE SCENE OF THE ACCIDENT
4. Resulting in SEVERE emotional distress. |
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Term
| What is the majority approach to bystander recovery for emotional distress? |
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Definition
| P must fear for their own safety. While this allows recovery for the direct action (zone of danger test), recovery can also be sought for damages resulting from emotional distress for harm to a relative. |
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Term
| What effect does superior knowledge, skills or abilities have on the reasonable standard of care for those individuals who are NOT professionals? |
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Definition
| The standard of care remains unchanged. However, it can be used as evidence of breach. A jury will determine whether a reasonable person with that specialized knowledge, skill or ability would have behaved as they did in the same or similar circumstances. Those with more than average knowledge are expected to use it. |
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Term
| What is the standard of care for a child, generally? What is the standard of care for a child engaged in adult activities that are dangerous? |
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Definition
| The general standard of care is that of a child of the same age, experience and intelligence under similar circumstances. The standard of care for a child engaged in adult and dangerous activities is that of a reasonable person and does not consider their minority. |
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Term
| What is the standard of care for doctors? |
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Definition
| Doctors have a duty to use a degree of care and skill that is expected of a reasonably competent doctor of same class in same situation. |
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Term
| What are the requirements for doctors wishing to testify as expert witnesses in a med/mal case? |
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Definition
| Knowledge, skill, experience, training and education in the field of the alleged malpractice and/or procedure. |
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Term
| What are the Daubert factors for determining whether an expert witness should be allowed to testify? |
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Definition
1. Whether the theory is testable by the scientific method
2. The potential rate of error, if applicable
3. Whether that theory is generally accepted |
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Term
| What duty to doctors have regarding informing patients of alternative forms of treatment? What standard is used to judge this duty? |
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Definition
| Doctors must inform patients of all medically reasonable alternative forms of treatment. Doctors must also disclose all material risks for those forms of treatment. The standard by which to judge a "material risk" is that of a reasonable patient--would a reasonable patient consider that risk material. |
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Term
| What type of statute is used in establishing a standard of care for breach analysis? What analysis is done to determine whether the statute fits that category? What effect does that category of statute's violation have on breach analysis? |
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Definition
Statutes with a relevant safety purpose can be used to determine breach.
Elements of analysis:
1. P alleges type of harm legislature sought to prevent
2. P is a member of the class that legislature sought to protect
3. Court decides whether do adopt statute's standard of care.
Breach of these statutes is negligence per se. Burden then shifts to D to show why they were not negligent. |
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Term
| What are the traditional classes of entrant for determination of land owner duty and what is the standard of care for reach of the classes? |
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Definition
1. Invitee - duty to make safe known dangers and those that could be made safe upon a reasonable inspection
2. Licensees - duty to make safe known dangers
3. No duty -- avoid willful or wanton harm. |
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Term
| What is the modern (and California approach) to landowner liability? What are the factors to consider? |
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Definition
The modern approach combines invitee and licensees into a reasonable care standard. The factors to consider, from the Heins case, are:
1. Foreseeability of harm
2. Purpose of entry
3. Time, manner and circumstances for entry
4. Expected use of premises
5. Reasonableness of inspection, repair or warning (PBL)
6. Ease of repair or correction
7. Burden of providing protection (to landowner/community) |
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Term
| What are the tests to determine landowner liability for criminal conduct carried out on the landowner's property by third parties? |
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Definition
Landowners only have liability for foreseeable criminal acts. Four tests to determine foreseeability:
1. Specific harm -- no duty unless aware of specific and imminent harm about to befall P
2. Prior similar incidents -- forseeability is established by evidence of previous crimes on or near premises considering time, frequency and similarity
3. Totality of circumstances (majority test) -- takes additional factors into account such as nature, condition and location of land, as well as other factors
4. Balancing test -- balances the foreseeability of the harm against the burden of imposing a duty to protect against criminal acts of third persons (Posecai case) |
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Term
| What duty does landowner have to make safe open an obvious dangers? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the elements of the attractive nuisance doctrine? |
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Definition
Landowner is liable for child trespassers injuries if:
1. The place is one where landowner knows or has reason to know that children are LIKELY to be present
2. The condition is one which the landowner knows or should know creates a risk of serious injury to those children
3. The children, because of their youth, do no realize the risk of the condition
4. The utility to the landowner of maintaining the condition and the burden of eliminating the danger are slight compared of risk to children
5. The landowner fails to exercise reasonable care to eliminate the danger or otherwise protect the children. |
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Term
| What effect does conformance with custom have on determining the standard of care a D owes a P? What effect failure to conform with custom have? What must P show in order to make a demonstration of failure to conform to custom relevant? |
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Definition
Conformance with custom is not always useful, since custom is often based upon cost/benefit factors as opposed to safety concerns. Failure to comply with custom can be highly useful if P can demonstrate:
1. What was actually done was not only different than but more dangerous than what is usually done
2. That the custom was well-defined in the industry
3. ...to avoid the kind of harm suffered by P. |
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Term
| What effect does a finding of RIL have on the jury's determination of the case? |
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Definition
1. Majority: Permits and inference of negligence without any other proof of it.
2. California/Minority approach -- rebuttable presumption of negligence. If D cannot rebut, jury MUST find breach |
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Term
| What is the "harm within the risk" rule, what aspect of causation is it used to determine, and what are its elements? |
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Definition
The harm within the risk rule helps establish actual causation through the substantial factor test. It's elements are:
1. A negligent act deemed wrongful because act increased the chances of a type of harm occurring
2. That type of harm does, in fact, occur
3. Jury may find negligent behavior caused harm
It is a rebuttable presumption. |
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Term
| When will an intentional, criminal superseding cause nevertheless be considered proximate? |
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Definition
| If risk was foreseeable or a risk that made D's conduct negligent in the first place. Example: a negligently wired alarm system. |
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Term
| When will an appellate court overturn the damages awarded by a jury at trial due to excessiveness? |
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Definition
| If they "shock the conscience or suggest passion prejudice or corruption on the part of the jury." |
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Term
| What types of behavior justify punitive damages? What are the definitions of these types of behavior? |
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Definition
1. Malice -- means intentional harm or disregard of potential harm
2. Oppression -- despicable conduct that subjects a person to cruel and unjust hardship in conscious disregard of person's rights
3. Fraud -- intentional misrepresentation, deceit, or concealment of material facts with intent to harm |
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Term
| what are the defenses, and their definitions, to contributory the contributory negligence defense? |
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Definition
1. D's conduct more culpable -- D's recklessness versus P's negligence
2. Last Clear Chance -- where D was negligent AFTER the plaintiff was |
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Term
| What are three types of comparative negligence? |
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Definition
1. Pure comparative negligence -- P may recover any percentage of harm suffered, even if less than 50% at fault
2. Modified "No Greater Than" -- P can recover so long as negligence is no greater than D's
3. Modified "Not as Great As" -- P can recover if negligence is less than that of D |
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