Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Pharmacology
Final Exam
248
Veterinary Medicine
Graduate
10/14/2011

Additional Veterinary Medicine Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
Why are there limited allergic reactions to drugs?
Definition
Because most drugs are too small to elicit an immunological response against it.
Term
Penicillin allergy is what type of hypersensitivity?
Definition
TYPE 1
interacts with IgE - which degranulates mast cells and histamine is released.
Term
What occurs with type 2 hypersensitivity reactions to drugs ?
Definition
cells get drugs attached, and damage occurs
(rbc, platelet, WBC)
this occurs with NSAIDS or sulfonamides
Term
What type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs with NSAID use?
Definition
Type 2
Term
Type 4 delayed hypersensitivity occurs with what type of drugs most frequently?
Definition
Topical
not very severe and well tolerated
Term
Allergic drug reactions are dose dependent.
True or False?
Definition
FALSE
even a small dose can lead to the allergy
Term
Idiosyncratic drug reactions are unexpected and not related to the pharmacology of the drug.
True or False?
Definition
TRUE
Term
What are the causes of ineffective drug reactions, providing the drug is used properly?
Definition
ULTRA effective drug metabolism
differentiation in receptor or enzymes (no drug binding)
chemically inactive (improper storage, etc)
microbe resistance
Term
What drugs do cats have drug reactions with and should never recieve?
Definition
Acetominophen
methylene blue
phosphate enemas
any benzyl-containing compound
cisplatin
5-fluorouracil
synthetic pyrethroids
primidone
Term
Why shouldn't you use methylene blue in cats? What should you use instead?
Definition
denature feline hemoglobin
methylene blue is used to treat nitrate poisoning - but instead use ascorbic acid
Term
Which drug has the highest rate of toxicity (death) in dogs?
Definition
amitraz
Term
What is the overall most toxic group of drugs? (has the most adverse interactions)
Definition
ANTIPARASITES

this is highest in deaths per animals treated
Term
What are the 4 major causes of vomiting?
Definition
Central/CNS disease
Vestibular disease
Chemoreceptor trigger zone induced
Abdominal
Term
What are some metabolic consequences of long term vomiting?
Definition
- dehydration
- azotemia
- electrolyte imbalances
----LOW POTASSIUM, which is dangerous because it can impact muscular activity, appetite and can cause heart disturbances
- acid-base disturbances
----loss of acid if stomach contents only
----loss of bicarb if small intestine contents lost (if bile present too)
***acidosis is more common***
Term
How do phenothiazines work as anti-emetics? How would it be dosed?
Definition
Broad spectrum - - INHIBITS NEURAL TRANSMISSION in vomiting center
-direct block of neural transmission
-anticholinergic activity
-inhibits neural activity in Chemoreceptor trigger zone
**dose lower than sedative dosage
may cause hypotension and sedation anyway
Term
Phenothiazines are excellent broad spectrum anti-emetics. When would it be inappropriate to use them?
Definition
- may exacerbate seizures in animals
- profound CNS depression noted
Term
What is the active ingredient in Benadryl and why can it be used as an anti-emetic?
Definition
DIPHENHYDRAMINE
antihistamine - H1 receptors are located in the Chemoreceptor trigger zone and the VESTIBULAR APPARATUS. Because it can directly block the vestibular apparatus, GOOD WITH MOTION SICKNESS (like car rides!)
Term
What inexpensive drug can be readily used to prevent motion sickness in dogs associated with transportation?
Definition
DIPHENHYDRAMINE
(or other antihistamines)
blocks the H1 receptors in the CTZ and vestibular apparatus
Term
How do dopaminergic antagonists work as anti-emetics? What are some examples of them?
Definition
- acts on Chemoreceptor trigger zone against toxins, blood agents (liver/renal toxins, abx, etc)
- promotes gastric emptying (the other way out :P )
IE. Metoclopramide and Domperidone
Term
What type of drug is Metoclopramide?
Definition
DOPAMINERGIC ANTAGONIST
- primarily an antiemetic!!
Blocks chemoreceptor trigger zone against toxins (liver, kidney, abx, CHEMO, other drugs) and blood agents
-increases lower esophageal tone
-promotes gastric emptying
-(also used to reduce cyclosporine dose in tx of atopy)
Term
What is the drug of choice against chemotherpay induced vomiting?
Definition
METACLOPRAMIDE
(dopaminergic antagnoist - chemo drugs activate chemoreceptor trigger zone and metoclopramide blocks the CTZ)
Term
What type of drug is Cerenia? How does it work?
Definition
NK1 receptor antagonist - ANTIEMETIC
potently blocks NK1 receptors that are activated by substance p - knocks out neurotransmission of the vomiting center and blocks visceral afferent input.
Give SID, SubQ/po, not approved in cats yet
Term
Which of the following antiemetics works on both the Chemoreceptor trigger zone AND the vomiting center?
A) acepromazine
B) metoclopramide
C) Cerenia
D) diphenhydramine
Definition
Answer: acepromazine - an phenothiazine, which works on CTZ and vomiting center (also anticholinergic)

metoclopramide - CTZ zone
cerenia - vomiting zone
diphenhydramine - CTZ and vestibular apparatus
Term
Which of the following antiemetics block the vestibular apparatus?
a) Phenothiazines
b) metoclopramide
c) Cerenia
d) diphenhydramine
Definition
Answer: D) Diphenhydramine - antihistamine that blocks CTZ and vestibular apparatus

a)acepromazine - CTZ and Vomiting center
b) metoclopramide - CTZ
c) cerenia - vomiting center
Term
Antibiotics are not commonly required for the treatment of GI disease.
True or False?
Definition
TRUE
it may be deleterious because it will cause increased pathogens (enteropathogenic "resident" bacteria of the gut take over, like with C. diff and penicillin)
also can cause resistance, esp if the exact pathogen is not properly identified
Term
What are the mechanisms of bacterial diarrhea?
Definition
- attachment via adherence factors (pili)
- toxin production
- mucosal invasion
- enteric viral infections causing bacterial translocation + sepsis
Term
Cats are resistant to Salmonellosis, because they are awesome.
True or False?
Definition
TRUE - in every way
no but seriously, cats are resistant to salmonellosis I swear
Term
Most dogs with Salmonellosis are young pups that have fever, diarrhea, and hemorrhagic stool.
True or False?
Definition
FALSE
there are two parts to this:
Salmonellosis commonly effects young animals, or kenneled/sick ones
but the most common syndrome associated with clinical salmonellosis is the ASYMPTOMATIC CARRIER
Term
What are the 3 distinct clinical syndromes of Salmonellosis?
Definition
1) Asymptomatic carriers - vast majority
2) Mild enterocolitis
3) Severe gastroenteritis with fever, diarrhea, and hemorrhagic stool (gross)
Term
Which antibiotics are most common observed to cause gastrointestinal upset?
Definition
Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines
MTZ (Metronidazole)
Erythromycin
Term
Which antbiotics have been indicated in causing pyrexia in cats?
Definition
Tetracyclines
Term
Which antibiotics have been indicated in commonly causing systemic and toxicity?
Definition
aminoglycosides (even if given orally)
Term
Which antibiotics have been know to cause immune reactions (esp of the GI)?
Definition
Trimethoprim sulfa
Penicillin
ASA (im pretty sure ASA is sulfasalizine or mesalazine- anti-inflammatory drugs of the GI ulcerative colitis. IF YOU KNOW BETTER ON ME THAN THIS LET ME KNOW!!)
Term
What are some reasons to not use antibiotics against GI disease?
Definition
-can kill off good bacteria and cause enteropathgenic ones to take over (ie. c. diff and penicillin)
-resistance from indiscriminate use
-some antibiotics have GI upset as a SIDE EFFECT (ie: aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, metronidazole, erythromycin)
Term
What type of antibiotic should be used against bloody diarrhea?
Definition
BACTERICIDAL
(beta lactams, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones)
Term
What is Cobalamin?
Why would you give it to an animal?
Definition
Cobalamin = Vitamin B12
Used in supplemental therapy in GI cases, better therapeutically than folate.
- animals deficient in Vit B12 are slower to recover from illness!!!!
Absorbed in the distal small bowel and ileum.
- bacteria synthesize folate but utilize cobalamin
Term
Why would you use cobalamin over folate for therapeutic supplementation in GI disease?
Definition
Folate is synthesized by bacteria, absorbed in the proximal duodenum
Cobalamin is utilized instead, absorbed in the distal small bowel and ileum
Term
Osmotic diarrhea is often resolved with pancreatic enzyme supplements. If not, what would be the next choice of drug to use?
Definition
ANTIBIOTIC - OXYTETRACYCLINE
Term
What is osmotic diarrhea?
Definition
Excess of unabsorbed solutes in teh GI lumen - draws more fluid into lumen
Term
What are some causes for osmotic diarrhea?
Definition
Decrease in pancreatic enzymes (pancreatic insufficiency, pancreatitis) = maldigestive
Bile deficicency
Small intestinal mucosal disease (malabsorption)
Term
How could you localize Intesinal disease by measuring vitamins?
Definition
By measuring folate - you would isolate the disease to the proximal duodenum
By measuring cobalamin - you would isolate it to the distal small bowel and ileum
Term
What is EPB?
Definition
Epitheial breakdown in the GI - causes a loss of the mucosal barrier
Term
What would sulfasalazine be used to treat?
Definition
IBD ulcerative colitis
Term
What drugs can be used against EPB (loss of intestinal mucosal barrier?)
Definition
ANTIBIOTICS
metronidazole
enrofloxacin
erythromycin
trimethoprimsulfa
gentamicin
Term
What drugs can be used against Rickettsia?
Definition
Tetracycline!
Term
When would you use a GI motility modifier?
Definition
In dogs with large bowel signs
(like loperamide and imodium)
Opoids most effective
- useful because they enhance mucosal contact my increase time on mucosa - decreases peristalsis, enhances contractions
Term
Why would you not use Atropine in a GI disease?
Definition
can add to vomiting (triggered by gastric atony)
depresses motility - which favors bacterial contact and proliferation
increases diarrhea
Term
What are the intestinal protectants?
Which one is most effective and why?
Definition
Kaolin/Pectin
activated Charcoal
Bismuth subsalicylate - most effective because salicylate fraction knocks out prostaglandins - but dont use in cats (this is whats in pepto bismo)
Term
How does Pepto Bismo work?
Why cant I give it to my cat?
Definition
Bismuth Subsalicylate - active ingredient
salicylate fraction works to block prostaglandins
cannot use it in cats because they have issues with salicylate (also why cats have a hard time with asprin - acteylsaliacytic acid)
Term
5 mechanisms for erosions and ulcers
Definition
- DRUGS (Nsaids, glucocorticoids)
- mucosal Ischemia (GDV)
- Infiltrative disease (IBD, neoplasia, macrophages filled with histo-organisms)
-Neurologic disease (associated with catecholamines
-Liver and renal DISEASE
Term
What properties of Sucralfate make it beneficial in treating gastric ulcers and erosions?
What is bad about it?
Definition
GOOD:
- cyoprotective
- physical barrier because it dissociates into a gel in acid
- inactivates pepsins
- promotes healing of mucosal barrier by enhancing PGE production, which causes vasodilation = healing
BAD
Expensive
need to give 3-4 times daily
Term
What are some precautions when using sucralfate?
Definition
Stagger if you are giving other drugs, because it prevents absorption of them
Term
What is the function of Omeprazole?
Definition
Inhibits H+/K+ ATPase pump inhibitor to reduce gastric acidity and volume
Term
When would you use Misoprostil?
Definition
NSAID induced ulceration/erosions
because it is a synthetic Prostaglandin
Term
What is the most commonly used NSAID against GI pain in horses?
Definition
Flunixin meglumine
Term
Ketoprofen is primarily used in adult horses because they have a more developed gastroprotective mechanisms.
True or False?
Definition
FALSE
Ketoprofen is LESS ulceragenic than other NSAIDS and is primarily used in FOALS (its expensive)
Term
What is a significant consequence of Excessive (chronic) NSAID use in a stressed horse?
Definition
RIGHT DORSAL ULCERATIVE COLITIS
Term
What is a significant consequence of Excessive (chronic) NSAID use in a stressed horse?
Definition
RIGHT DORSAL ULCERATIVE COLITIS
Term
What is a significant consequence of Excessive (chronic) NSAID use in a stressed horse?
Definition
RIGHT DORSAL ULCERATIVE COLITIS
Term
Right dorsal ulcerative colitis is an pathognomic sign of what drug use in horses?
Definition
Excessive and chronic NSAID use in a stressed horse
Term
What are some indications for using anti-endotoxic drugs in the horse?
Definition
Grain overload
strangulating intestinal obstructions
colitis
peritonitis
post op ileus
Term
What are some examples of anti-endotoxic drugs used in horses?
Definition
NSAIDS
Hyperimmune plasma (J5)
Polymyxin B
Pentoxifylline
Dimethylsulfoxide (DMSO)
Term
What can be done to improve effectiveness of anti-endotoxic drugs?
Definition
give BEFORE exposure to endotoxin
Term
Why should Pentoxifylline be only administered once to horses?
Definition
Bioavailability decreases with each additional administration
Term
What is the purpose of administering activated charcoal?
Definition
absorbs certain toxins/drugs
PREVENTS/reduces systemic absorption
-- give with laxative to get toxins out of the body faster!!
Term
What are some considerations when administering activated charcoal to a horse?
Definition
- add a laxative to get toxins out faster
- wait 3 hours before any other oral meds given
- a nursing foal will decrease effectiveness of charcaol (Dairy products)
- mineral oil suppresses action of charcoal also
Term
What has been seen to prevent the absorption of toxins from C.difficile and C.perfringens?
Definition
Di-Tri-Octahedral Smectite (biosponge)
this is in vitro - only alleged clinically
Term
What is the difference between a laxative and a cathartic agent?
Definition
Laxative - loosens the bowel
Cathartic - cleanse/purges the bowels
Term
Why should you not give epsom salt for more than 3 consecutive days?
Definition
It can cause magnesium toxicity and/or enteritis
Term
Why should you be reeeeeeally careful when you administer mineral oil?
Definition
It can cause severe granulomatous pneumonia if aspirated
Term
Why should you not leave an indwelling nasogastric tube in place in a horse for more than 2 days?
Definition
May cause pharyngeal necrosis
Term
What are some indications for using macrolide antibiotics in horses?
Definition
Proliferative enteropathy (lawsonia intracellularis) - weaning foals
Pyogranulomatous enterocolitis (rhodococcus equi)
Term
How would you treat an infection of Rhodococcus Equi in a horse?
Definition
Macrolide antibiotic (clarithromycin, erythromycin, azithromycin)
Add rifampin
*pyogranulomatous enterocolitis*
Term
What treatment should be initiated when a foal with Lawsonia intracellularis develops diarrhea on erythromycin?
Definition
Start chloramphenicol PO
Term
What is the treatment for Potomac Horse fever induced colitis?
Definition
Oxytetracycline
Term
Botanicals are derivatives of non-dietary plants and are inert.
True or False?
Definition
TRUE
Term
Which of the following chondroprotectant neutraceuticals are found naturally occurring within the body ?
A) Glucosamine
B)Chondroitin
Definition
BOTH Are found within the body
Term
What are the effects of chondroprotectant neutraceuticals?
Definition
-promote chondrocyte and synoviocyte function
- inhibit damaging enzymes within fluid and cartilage of joints
- inhibits thrombosis in vasculature supplying joints
**these are the "building blocks" of GAGs which are the extracellular cushion of the joint
Term
What are GAGs?? What do they do?
Definition
GAG - glycosaminoglycans
these are the extracellular cushion of a joint, produced by chondrocytes and synoviocytes. When osteoarthritis present, cells dont make GAGs, so supplement with Glucosamine and Chondroitin.
GAGs = stimulate secretions of substances that protect the joint by inhibiting degrading joint enzymes and they break apart microthrombi
GAGs= GOOD JOINTS
Term
What property do Vitamins E, B6 and Zinc all share?
Definition
ANTI-OXIDANTS
Term
Why are Omega-3 fatty acids/fish oils used in dogs with atopy?
Definition
Causes reduced inflammation by:
- converted to Eicosapentanoic acid (EPA) replacing arachodonic acid, so it enters the inflammatory pathway, gets converted to prostaglandins (pro-inflam)
- EPA elicits much less potent inflammatory response than AA
Term
Arginine is required for the herpes virus to replicate, how can this be repressed?
Definition
Use LYSINE
it represses arginine synthesis
this switches to lysine pathways and makes it harder for the virus to make its own proteins
Term
How should Acemannan be administered?
a) Orally
b) IM ONLY
c) intralesionally
d) only administer slow drip IV with lidocaine
Definition
Answer: Intralesionally
used it ON wounds or IN tumors
Immunostmulant nutraceutical that is used topically against wounds or injected into mastocytomas
Term
Which of the following anti-diarrheal nutraceuticals is also anti-protozoal?
A) carvacrol
B) eugenol
C) cinnamaldehyde
D) thymol
E) chamazulene
Definition
E) chamazulene
this is a anti-inflammatory from the chamomile plants that also is anti-protozoal (also has many other bioactive properties)
Term
Which of the following anti-diarrheal nutraceuticals is also anti-fungal?
A) carvacrol
B) eugenol
C) cinnamaldehyde
D) thymol
E) chamazulene
Definition
Cinnamaldehyde
potent antifungal activities
Term
Which of the following anti-diarrheal nutraceuticals is also analgesic?
A) carvacrol
B) eugenol
C) cinnamaldehyde
D) thymol
E) chamazulene
Definition
Eugenol
Term
Why is cranberry extract used against feline UTIs or to prevent urolithaliasis?
Definition
They contain tannins:
- which acidify the urine
- prevent bacterial adherence to bladder (instead are flushed in the urine)
- prevents crystal formation
Term
What botanical is helpful to use when preforming jaw surgery?
Definition
Yunnan baiyao powder
steroidal saponins supply hemostasis to surgery that bleeds a lot
Term
Why is drug metabolism not relevant to nutraceuticals?
Definition
Most are native to the body so they do not need to be biotransformed.
Term
Name two chondroprotectants and describe how they work.
Definition
Chondroitin and Glucosamine
help form GAGs
- promote chondrocyte/synviocyte function
- inhibit damaging enzymes of joint
- inhibit thrombosis in joint vessels
Term
Describe the hepatoprotective proterties of SAMe and N-AcCys.
Definition
scavenge free radical and reduce hepatocellular damage
- inactivates toxins
Term
Describe the hepatoprotective properties of Silybin.
Definition
-antiinflammatory
- protects membranes
- promotes toxin efflux
Term
What is the clinical application of omega-3 fatty acids and how does it owrk?
Definition
Used against CANINE ATOPY
fatty acids converted to EPA, which enters inflammatory pathway in place of Arachidonic acid, elicits a reduced inflammatory effects
Term
What is the unique ingredient in "brain" nutraceuticals and how does it work?
Definition
Phosphatidylcholine
- gets converted to acetycholine and improves neurotransmission
Term
Name the anti-viral nutraceutical for herpes and how does it work?
Definition
LYSINE
it represses the arginine pathway
arginine is required for herpes viral replication, so it has limited replication without it
Term
Name the immunostimulant botanical and describe two clinical applications.
Definition
Acemannan (from aloe vera)
used against wounds and mastocytomas
- releases proinflammatory cytokines
- humoral and cellular immunity
Term
How does cranberry extract prevent bladder problems in cats?
Definition
It contains tannins (SO DOES WINE, hmmmm yet another similarity to JUICE)
tannins acidify the urine and prevent bacteria to adhering to the bladder
- this prevents crystal formation and flushes bacteria out in the urine
Term
Which 50S inhibitors (antimicrobial) do not inhibit Enterobacteriaceae?
Definition
Lincosamides, erythromycin
do not penetrate the bacteria well
Term
What properties does carvacrol have as an anti-diarrheal nutraceutical?
Definition
Antibiotic
(olive oil)
Term
What properties does Eugenol have as an anti-diarrheal nutraceutical?
Definition
analgesic
antibiotic
(clove oil)
Term
What properties does Cinnamaldehyde have as an anti-diarrheal nutraceutical?
Definition
antifungal
Term
What properties does thymol have as an anti-diarrheal nutraceutical?
Definition
antibiotic
(thyme)
Term
What properties does chamazulene have as an anti-diarrheal nutraceutical?
Definition
anti-inflammatory
anti-protozoal
(chamomile)
Term
Of the following types of drug interactions, which is considered chemical?
A) pharmacokinetic interactions
B) Pharmacodynamic interactions
C) Direct physical interactions
Definition
C) direct physical
the others are indirect
Term
Which represents an example of a drug changing the distribution of another drug?
A) H2 blockers increasing gastric pH
B) NSAIDs and barbituates
C) Flunixin and furosemide
Definition
Answer: B) NSAIDs diminish plasma binding proteins of barbituates
to the volume of distribution is increased (for barbituates)
Term
Which represents an example of a drug changing the elimination of another drug?
A) H2 blockers increasing gastric pH
B) NSAIDs and barbituates
C) Flunixin and furosemide
Definition
Answer: C)
flunixin and furosemide compete for the same active spot on the transporter/exporter in the renal tubules
- this will cause competitive elimination
Term
Which represents an example of a drug changing the absorption of another drug?
A) H2 blockers increasing gastric pH
B) NSAIDs and barbituates
C) Flunixin and furosemide
Definition
Answer: A)
H2 histamine R blockers increase gastric pH
so the % ionized for weak acids increase
(ionized drugs cannot leave the stomach)
Term
Why should Cilastin and imipenem not be used together?
Definition
Cilastin inhibits renal dihydropeptidase that inactivates imipenem
Term
Inhibitors of microsomal enzymes: increase or decrease activity of other drugs?
Definition
INCREASE
ie. chloramphenicol
enrofloxacin
ketoconazole
cimetidine
ranitidine
prednisolone
Term
Inducers of microsomal enzymes: increase or decrease activity of other drugs?
Definition
DECREASE
IE: phenobarbitol
griseofulvin
phenylbutazone
rifampin
Term
What is the function of clavulanic acid?
Definition
Inhibits beta lactamase, which is produced by some bacteria and it would cause resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics
Term
When wouldn't you use zylazine and yohimbine together?
Definition
They are antagonistic - unless you are trying to reverse the xylazine
So if you want to keep the animal down don't use them together:
they both bind to ALPHA 2 receptors
Term
What drug interaction occurs between streptogrammins?
Definition
they both act on the same receptors
this means together they are a STRONGER agonist = synergy
Term
Why shouldn't you supplement folic acid to an animal that you are giving sulfonamides?
Definition
The mechanism of sulfonamides is to inhibit the folic acid pathway to prevent bacterial replication, so giving folic acid would defeat the purpose
Term
Why are sulfonamides and nezylpyrimidines used together?
Definition
they work on the same pathway at different steps of it,
so they are synergestic!!
working on attacking the system from two places
Term
Why should you be careful with aminoglycosides and inhalant anesthetics?
Definition
the aminoglycosides will cause enhanced respiratory depression in conjunction with the anesthesia
Term
Penicillins are acidic or alkaline?
What drugs should they not be mixed with (based on pH) to prevent interaction?
Definition
Penicillins are acidic
do not used with alkaline drugs like sulfonamides, aminophylline, barbituates
Term
Sulfonamides are acidic or alkaline?
What drugs should they not be mixed with (based on pH) to prevent interaction?
Definition
Sulfonamides are ALKALINE
so they shouldn't be mixed with acidic drugs like:
penicillins, xylazine, ketamine
Term
Ketamine is acidic or alkaline?
What drugs should it not be mixed with (based on pH) to prevent interaction?
Definition
Ketamine is acidic
do not use with alkaline drugs like:
sulfonamides
aminothyllines
barbituates
Term
What drugs should you avoid giving B vitamin supplements to?
Definition
Sulfonamides - counteracts the action of the drug
Tetracyclines - becomes oxidized
Term
Ca++ interacts with a lot of drugs - what are some of them?
Definition
Antibiotics, NSAIDS, furosemide
Term
Microsomal enzyme inducers decrease the activity of what drugs?
Definition
(the drug itself)
corticosteroids
cyclosporine
Term
Which drugs induce microsomal enzymes?
Definition
Phenobarbitol
rifampin
griseofulvin
(these will decrease the activity of other drugs)
Term
Which drugs inhibit microsomal enzymes?
Definition
Chloramphenicol
corticosteroids
cimetidine
erythromycin
ciprofloxacin
(these will increase the activity of other drugs)
Term
Which drugs inhibit renal tubular secretion?
Definition
Phenylbutazone, sulfonamides
thiazide diuretics
verapamil
NSAIDS
(increase t1/2 of drugs like penicillin, digoxin, methotrexate)
Term
What effect does potassium-lowering diuretics have on digoxin?
Definition
accentuates digoxin activity - can cause toxicity
Term
Xylazine and yohimbine both bind to Alpha 2 receptors and are antagonistic to each other.
true or false?
Definition
TRUE
he made a big point about this, and mentioned it would for sure be on the exam....1pt, yesssss
Term
Which of the following pairs of drugs involved in interactions are based on a shared receptor?
A) vitamin K and clopidrogel
B) ampicillin and tetracycline
C) atropine and carbachol
Definition
C) both atropine and carbachol compete for acetylcholine receptors
Term
What type of drug interaction occurs between ampicillin and tetracycline?
Definition
antagonistic
Term
Why would two "full" agonists (activating the same type of receptor with high affinity) not have a synergistic effect?
Definition
Because as a full agonist, the receptors will be at capacity, instead these two drugs would compete with each other to bind but not change outcome.
If synergy was desired, the target should be of another receptor
Term
What type of drug interaction occurs between xylazine and yohimbine?
A) Chemical
B) Pharmacokinetic
C) pharmacodynamic
Definition
Pharmacodynamic
Term
What type of drug interaction occurs between sulfonamides and folic acid?
A) Chemical
B) Pharmacokinetic
C) pharmacodynamic
Definition
Pharmacodynamic (antagonism)
or chemical (its listed as both)
Term
What type of drug interaction occurs between iron supplementation and acepromazine?
A) Chemical
B) Pharmacokinetic
C) pharmacodynamic
Definition
Answer: Chemical
the iron oxidizes the phenothiazine
Term
Why are some drug preparations not mean to be diluted in water?
Definition
It can cause precipitation of in dilute solution
Term
Halothane and amikacin can cause a similar clinical outcome even though they have two completely different clinical applications. WHY?
Definition
They both cause respiratory depression. they both block nicotinic -acetylcholinergic pathways in the lungs. together these would have an enhanced depression of respiration
Term
What is the most common type of adverse drug reaction?
a) toxic
b) allergic
c) idiosyncratic
d) ineffective
Definition
Toxic
Term
When should you report an adverse drug reaction like a toxicity?
Definition
If you have used the drug correctly (correct dose, correct indication, animal had no major complicating disease like kidney/liver failure)
Term
What is the treatment for cats that have ingested acetominophen?
Definition
Acetylcysteine - scavenges the free radicals associated with acetominophen
Term

1)      Given the problems with misuse of antibiotics, what is the First question to be asked when considering antimicrobial therapy?

a.       What is the likely identity of the pathogen?

b.      What is the likely sensitivity of the pathogen?

c.       What administration route, dose and frequency is needed?

d.      Is an antimicrobial drug actually required?

Definition
ANSWER: d) 
Term

1)      The breakpoint for ampicillin is 32 ug/ml in E. coli. Therefore:

a.       Sensitive e. coli have MIC >32ug/ml

b.      Resistant e. coli have MIC >32ug/ml

c.       Resistant bacteria will be killed if the plasma concentration <32 ug/ml

d. Sensitive bacteria will not be killed if the plasma concentration is >32 ug/ml

Definition
Answer: B) 
Term

  Which antimicrobial agent below is a beta-lactam?

a.       Ceftiofur

b.      Kanamycin

c.       Tulathromycin

d.      Marbofloxacin 

Definition

Answer: A) Ceftiofur - which is a cephalosporin

 

(kanamycin and tulathromycin are aminoglycosides, and marbofloxacin is a fluoroquinolones) 

Term

 

Which antimicrobial is a macrolide?

a.       Cephalexin

b.      Gentamicin

c.       Florfenicol

d.      Ormethoprim

e.      Erythromycin 

 

Definition

E) ERYTHROMYCIN - is a macrolide

 

 

Cephalexin - beta lactam (cephalosporin) 

Florenicol - phenicol (50S inhibitor) 

Gentamicin - aminoglycoside 

Oremethoprim - sulfonamide

Term

Which of the following antimicrobials is bactericidal?

a.       Amoxicillin

b.      Chloramphenicol

c.       Lincomycin

d.      Sulfamethazine

Definition

Answer: A) AMOXICILLIN - beta-lactam that irreversibly binds to peptidoglycan wall 

 

Cloramphenicol - 50S reversible inhibitor 

Lincomycin - 50S reversible inhibitor

Sulfamethazine - inhibit folate pathway (mimic PABA) but not completely

 

 

Term

           Which of the following antimicrobials have significant post-antibiotic effects on the bacteria (ie. Unrelated to side effects)

a.       Aminoglycosides and fluoroquinolones

b.      Lincosamides and tetracyclines

c.       Nitrofurans

d.      Novobactin and isoniazid

Definition

Answer: A) aminoglycosides and flurorquinolones 

these both will have sustained effect to bacteria for extended periods of time after exposure 

POST ABX EFFECT

Term

      Which antibiotics have pharmacologic effects that are unrelated to their antibacterial activity?

a.       Amoxicillin

b.      Metronidazole

c.       Dapsone

d.      Minocycline

e.      All of the above 

Definition

Answer: E) all of the above 

Amoxicillin - neuroprotective

Metronidazole - antiinflammatory, antiprotozoal

Dapsone - antiprotozoal, antiinflammatory, antimycobacterium (brown recluse spider bites too) 

minocycline - neuroprotective agent 

Term

1)      The presence of pus has an inhibitory effect on:

a.       Penicillins

b.      Cephalosporins

c.       Lincomycin

d.      Tetracyclines

e. Sulfonamides 


Definition

Answer: Sulfonamides 

this is because the MOA of them is to inhibit the folate pathway for bacterial reproduction, but there is excess folate in an abscess, so it wouldn't have an effect on the bacterial growth 

Term

1)      Which of the following antimicrobials has/have activity versus CNS infections?

a.       Fluoroquinolones

b.      Chloramphenicol/florfenicol

c.       B-lactams

d.      All of the above 

Definition

Answer: D) all of the above 

Chloramphenicol works well with blactams which are neuroprotective. Fluoroquinolones concentration in the brain (and WBCs and prostate)

Term

1)      Which of the following list of antimicrobials is best avoided if you have a dog with a hearing deficit related to a ruptured tympanic membrane?

a.       Penicillin G

b.      Chloramphenicol

c.       Gentamicin

d.      Amoxicillin

Definition

Answer: C) Gentamicin 

this can cause ototoxicity if the ear drum is not patent 

Term

1)      A nasty bite wound on a dog is presented to you and bacteriology shows that the infection is due to pseudomonas.  IF you had to choose a penicillin, which would you choose?

a.       Penicillin G

b.      Amoxicillin

c.       Methicillin

d.  Ticarcillin


Definition

Answer: D) ticarcillin

this is a group 5 penicillin, which is effective against Pseudomonas

Term

      What is the major advantage with cefovecin?

a.       First-generation cephalosporin without resistance issues

b.      1-2 doses in companion animals

c.       Extra-label use in diary cattle

d.  Approved for use in swine 

Definition

Answer: 1-2 doses in companion animals 

this is convienia (its "convenient") 

 

it is a 3rd generation parental drug, only used in cats and dogs 

Term

 Which answer best describes ceftiofur?

a.       It is first generation, oral

b.      It is first generation, parenteral

c.       It is second generation, parental

d.      It is third generation, parental 

Definition

Answer: third generation, parental 

(just like cefovecin,

cefpodoxime is also 3rd generation but is oral) 

Term

      Which of the following is true regarding imipenem?

a.       It is effective against Gram – and gram + bacteria

b.      It is appropriate to administer imipenem as the sole therapeutic agent

c.       It can be administered orally

d.      It is bacteriostatic 

Definition

Answer: A) 

It cannot be used as a sole agent, and is very ionic/irritating so it cannot be given orally. It is also a carbapenem, which irreversibly inhibits peptidoglycan wall, which makes it bactericidal 

Term

      Which of the following is NOT usually associated with amikacin?

a.       Nephrotoxic

b.      Ototoxic

c.       Bacteriostatic activity

d.      Respiratory depression in myasthenia gravis patients receiving anesthesia 

Definition

Answer: C) 

because it irreversibly binds to the 50S subunit 

Term

1)      You are treating a cat that has a Chlamydia infection that you believe will be susceptible to treatment with a tetracycline. Your clinical examination has revealed evidence of kidney damage. Which tetracycline would you choose?

a.       Oxytetracycline

b.      Chlortetracycline

c.       Tetracycline

d.      Doxycycline 

Definition
Answer: Doxycycline - it is both safe in cats and animals with kidney damage, just make sure you give the cat water when you administer it orally to prevent esophageal strictures :) 
Term

      Which one of the following is not a side effect of tetracyclines?

a.       Retinal dystrophy in puppies

b.      Irritation and at the injection site

c.       Yellow teeth

d.      Photosensitivity in strong light 

Definition

Answer: A) retinal dystrophy 

the only one I could find was retinopathies in cats given fluoroquinoloes, but I also didnt look that hard.

Term

      Select the antimicrobial drug with the most distinctive (unique or different from the other choices) mechanism/site of action?

a.       Lincomycin

b.      Chloramphenicol

c.       Erythromycin

d.      Enrofloxacin 

Definition

Answer: D) enrofloxacin (binds DNA gyrase) 

lincomycin, chloramphenicol, and erythromycin are all 50S inhibitors

Term

      Which is currently recognized use for tulathromycin?

a.       It is used in horse for respiratory infections

b.      It is used for skin infections in dogs and cats

c.       It is used for GI infections in hogs

d.      It is used for respiratory infections in cattle 

Definition

Answer: D) respiratory infections in cattle 

Special feature is that it concentrates in the lungs and macrophages- onetimedose

also is good against mycoplasma 

 

Term

      What is a distinctive property of clindamycin?

a.       It does not inhibit anaerobes

b.      It does not cause respiratory depression during general anesthesia

c.       It is bacteriocidal against Salmonella

d.      Its distribution includes therapeutic levels in bone

Definition

Answer: D) reaches therapeutic levels in the bone 

20% concentration reaches the bone, so it is effective against osteomyelitis! 

 

Term

      Virginiamycin is directly related to which of the following antibiotics?

a.       Dalfopristin

b.      Quinuprisitin

c.       Linezolid

d.      (a) and (b) 

Definition

Answer: D) they are all streptogrammins 

linezolid is an oxizolidinone

Term

    Chloramphenicol is not used in production animals. Why?

a.       Residues are potentially carcinogenic in humans

b.      Residues may produce allergic reaction in humans

c.       Residues may produce fatal aplastic anemia in humans

d.      Residues may induce resistance in human bacterial pathogens

Definition

Answer: C) fatal aplastic anemia in humans 

inhibits mitochondrial protein synthesis in erythropoeitic cells 

Term

      What is the mode of action of danofloxacin?

a.       It binds to the 30S ribosomal fragment of bacteria

b.      It binds to the 50S ribosomal fragment of bacteria

c.       It acts to inhibit cross linking of bacterial cell walls

d.      It inhibits the action of DNA gyrase in bacteria 

Definition

Answer: D) inhibits DNA gyrase (just like enrofloxacin) 

all the floxacins are fluoroquiolones

Term

      What is a noted used of rifampin in veterinary medicine?

a.       For treatment of salmonellosis in hogs

b.      For treatment of Rhodococcus in horses

c.       For the treatment of E. coli orchitis

d.      For the treatment of Pasturella respiratory infections

Definition
B) treatment of rhodococcus in horses (in combination with clarithromycin) 
Term

      Vancomycin is banned for use in food animals in the US because:

a.       It is a potential carcinogen

b.      It can produce fatal aplastic anemia after consuming meat residues

c.       It produces meat taint (bitter taste)

d.      It can produce communicable resistance

Definition

Answer: D) can produce communicable resistance 

it is one of the last drugs available against MRSA 

 

Term

      What is the mode of action of sulfamethazine?

a.       It binds to the 30S ribosomal fragment of bacteria

b.      It binds to the 50S ribosomal fragment of bacteria

c.       It acts to inhibit cross linking of bacterial cell walls

d.      It inhibits the action of DNA gyrase of bacteria

e.      It inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase in bacteria

Definition

E) inhibits dihydropteroate synthase in bacteria 

this is an enzyme in the FOLATE pathway 

Term

      Which of the following is true for MPCs?

a.       MPC are mutant prevention concentrations

b.      MPC>MIC

c.       MPCs are important for fluoroquinolones

d.      All of the above

Definition
Answer: D) all of the above 
Term

    Which of the following drug(s), or potential drug(s), have no bactericidal effects of their own but they improve (or could improve) the activity of some antibiotics?

a.       Clavulanic acid

b.      Reserpine

c.       A drug that blocks virulence of bacteria

d.      A drug that destroys integrons

e.      All of the above 

Definition

Answer: E) all of the above 

 

Term

       Pick the antibiotic with the following characteristics: breaks apart bacterial DNA, kills anaerobic but not aerobic bacteria; has anti-inflammatory effects; causes neoplasia and peripheral neuropathy.

a.       Novobacin

b.      Metronidazole

c.       Polymyxin 

Definition
Answer: B) metronidazole 
Term

      What statements describes bisphosphates:

a.       Inhibits DNA relaxase

b.      Bacteriocidal in plasmid-bearing bacteria

c.       Spectrum is limited to bacteria with plasmids

d.      Will not affect plasmid-free bacteria that have integrons

e.      All of the above are true 

Definition

Answer: E) all of the above are true 

 

Term

   What is the fungal target of griseofulvin?

a.       Ergosterol

b.      Tubulin

c.       Squalene

d.      Fungal DNA 

Definition

Answer: B) tubulin

Ergosterol is inhibited by the Azole, Polyene antifungals and indirectly by Allyamine (terbinafine) antifungals which prevent squalene from being converted to ergosterol = these inhibit cytoplasmic membrane 

 

DNA = flucytosine which inhibits Nucleic acid synthesis

Term

   Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a.       Terbenafine is fungicidal because of a toxic accumulation of squalene in the fungal cell

b.      Amphotericin can be used versus systemic mycotic infections without any toxicity issues

c.       Flucytosine is fungicial

d.      Itraconazole can be used alone in an immunocompromised patient because it is fungicidal 

Definition

Answer: A) 

it prevents squalene from being converted to ergosterol which is needed for the cytoplasmic membrane so squalene builds up 

Term

      Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding amantadine?

a.       It inhibits viral uncoating

b.      Its spectrum is limited to influenza viruses

c.       It can be used to treat Parkinson’s disease

d.      All of the above is true 

Definition

Answer: D) all of the above 

inhibits fusion of endosomal membranes so uncoating cannot occur

= only influenza A and can be used against parkinsons and neuropathic pain

Term

     Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a.       Idoxuridine is a topical drug used versus herpes keratitis in cats

b.      Oseltamivir is a good choice versus H1N1

c.       Ribavirin causes anemia

d.      All of the above

Definition
Answer: D) all of the above 
Term

     Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a.       Oseltamivir inhibits neuraminidase

b.      2-deoxy-glucose inhibits viral protein modification

c.       Reverse transcriptase inhibitors can eliminate viral DNA from the host genome

d.      5FU inhibits viral DNA synthesis 

Definition
Answer: C) reverse transcriptase doesnt ELIMINATE viral DNA it just prevents its transcription
Term

      Degrading an antibiotic is a bacterial resistance mechanism. True or False?

Definition
TRUE 
this is what happens with beta lactamses and cephalosporinases  
Term

 Which one of the statements below is most UNTRUE about the spectrum of action of albendazole?

a.       Albendazole can be effective against adult parasitic nematodes

b.      Albendazole can be effective against adult fluke

c.       Albendazole can be effective against adult heartworm

d.      Albendazole can be effective against hypobiotic (encysted) larvae

Definition
Answer: C) Albendazole is NOT effective against adult heartworm and filaria
Term

  Which one of the following antinematodal drugs causes hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane of  neurons or muscles of the nematode parasite, causing paralysis?

a.       Pyrantel

b.      Levamisole

c.       Ivermectin

d.      Dichlorvos

e.      Albendazole 

Definition

Answer: C) Ivermectin (Avermectin)

target s GluCls on the nematode nerve and pharyngeal muscle - causing paralysis and immobilization

Term

   Which one of the following antinematodal drugs could cause liver toxicity and bone marrow depression if used in dogs?

a.       Pyrantel

b.      Biperazine

c.       Moxidectin

d.      Ivermectin

e.      Albendazole 

Definition
Answer: Albendazole 
Term

        For the administration of fenbendazole as a nematocide to a dog, which one of the procedures is most correct?

a.       Administer once after a full meal

b.      Administer 3 times over 5 days after full meals

c.       Administer once on an empty stomach

d.      Administer 3 times over 5 days on an empty stomach 

Definition
Answer: B) three times over 5 days with full stomach 
Term

       Despite the fact that ivermectin is usually a very safe drug, overdose of this drug can cause:

a.       Aplastic anemia

b.      Abortion during late pregnancy

c.       CNS depression

d.      Jaundice

e.      Ventricular fibrillation

Definition
Answer: CNS depression
Term

      Which one of the following statements regarding the mechanism of action of the antiparasitic is FALSE?

a.       Emodepside – activation of lactrophillin receptors

b.      Levamisole – activation of nicotinic receptors

c.       Oxfendazole – inhibition of microtubule formulation

d.      Piperazine – activation of glutamate-gated chloride channels 

Definition

Answer: piperazine - which is a GABA receptor agonist

(GluCl channels are acted on by ivermectin) 

Term

         Which one of the following benzimidazoles nematocides is used in dogs?

a.       Albendazole

b.      Febantel

c.       Oxibendazole

d.  Thiabendazole


Definition

Answer: Febantel 

This is a what is in DRONTAL!!

Term

      Which one of the following drugs, at the clinical doses, is LEAST effective against canine whipworms (Trichuris vulpis) ?

a.       Febendazole

b.      Milbemycin

c.       Pyrantel 

Definition

Answer: C) Pyrantel (cholinergic agonist) 

Pyrantel is only effective against ascarids (tapeworms) and hookworms but NOT WHIPS in cats and dogs 

===strongid t 

(horses- strongyles, ascarids, pinworms

pigs - ascarids, nodular worms, stomach worms) 

 

Term

      Which one of the following statements about praziquantel is most TRUE ?

a.       Praziquantel selectively activates nicotinic receptor channels of cestodes

b.      Espsiprantel is better absorbed than praziquantel

c.       Praziquantel does not have activity against hydatid cysts

d.      Praziquantel is teratogenic 

Definition

C) no activity against hydatid cysts (or ova)

(in drontal plus) 

it is not teratogenic (which is why you can deworm bitches with drontal plus before whelping) 

- works against calcium channels (binds to Beta subunit) inhibits movement and digestion

 

Term

      Which one of the following compounds is NOT recognized for its activity against cestodes?

a.       Pyrantel

b.      Doramectin

c.       Dichlorophene

d.      Albendazole 

Definition

Answer: DORAMECTIN not effective against tapeworms

it is effective against roundworms, lungworms, grubs sucking lice, microfilaria

cestodes= tapeworms

pyrantel - tapes, hooks, pinworms, nodular worms, stomach worms

Dichlorophene is effective against cestodes 

albendazole is effective against roundworms, tapeworms, and flukes

Term

      Which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT?

a.       Clorsulon is more effect against immature F. hepatica than mature F. hepatica

b.      Clorsulon is more effect against mature F. hepatica then immature F. hepatica

c.       Clorsulon is effective against immature F. hepatica and mature F. hepatica

d.      Clorsulon is combined in a single preparation with moxidectin to treat nematodes 

Definition
C) effective against both mature and immature F. Hepatica
Term

      Which one of the following statements is MOST TRUE when referring to anthelmintic resistance?

a.       Anthelmintic resistance is present id there is less than 95% reduction in fecal egg counts following anthelmintic treatement

b.      Cross-resistance occurs between albendazole and ivermectin

c.       Ivermectin resistance can be overcome by increasing the dose of the anthelmintic

d.      Benzimidazole resistance is not widespread in cyanthostomes of horses 

Definition
Answer: A) 
Term

   What is the meaning of the term REFUGIA?

a.       Refugia is the cellulose in the diet that inhibits the growth of nematode parasites

b.      Refugia are host animals carrying resistant nematode parasites

c.       Refugia are host animals carrying sensitive nematode patasites

d.      Refugia are a group of sensitive nematode parasites in a protected environment that are not exposed during anthelmintic treatment 

Definition
Answer: D) 
Term

  Which one of the following actions does not reduce the development of anthelmintic resistance?

a.       Use of mixed species grazing

b.      Use of planned and timed anthelmintic doses and management to reduce the survival of free living resistant stages in the environment

c.       Removal of feces on horse paddocks

d.      Use of anthelmintic drugs with long half-lives 

Definition
Answer: D) 
Term

Todlophophamide intravenously over 5 minutes to a 35 lbs female spayed wheaten terrier with multicentric lymphoma. Which one of the following is a potential adverse drug reaction to cyclophosphamide?

a.       Neutropenia

b.      Diarrhea

c.       Anemia

d.      Hemorrhagic cystitis

e.      Thrombocytopenia 

Definition
Answer: D) hemorrhagic cystitis
Term

      Which one of the following drugs causes fatal pulmonary toxicity when administered to cats at therapeutic doses?

a.       Cisplatin

b.      Prednisone

c.       Cyclophosphamide

d.      Doxorubicin

e.      Vincristine

Definition

Answer: A) Cisplatin 

No beuno en el gato

Term

 

    Which one of the following drugs causes dose-dependent cardiotoxicity when given to dogs?

 

a.       5-fluorouracil

 

b.      Doxorubicin

 

c.       Cisplatin

 

d.      Cyclophosphamide

                  e.     Vincristine 

 

Definition

Answer: B) Doxorubricin 

 

Term

 A 6-year-old neutered female Scottish terrier has Clinical stage III lymphoma. You treated her with a cyclophosphamide intravenously last week, but her lymph node decreased in size about 15%. You would like to treat her today with another cytotoxic drug. However, her neutrophil count is low. Her physical examination is otherwise normal including biochem panel, except enlarged lymph nodes. Which one of the following drugs could be used to treat her safely without further decreasing her neutrophil count?

a.       Cyclophosphamide

b.      L-asparaginase

c.       Doxorubricin

d.      Cisplatin

e.      5-fluorouracil 

Definition

Answer: B) L-asparaginase - which is not myelosupressive unless you combine it with vancristine 

this is actually one of the safer drugs - can cause pancreatitis, hypersensitivity or hemorrhagic (which is rare) 

Term

    If administered outside of the vein (perivascularly), which one of the following drugs causes severe tissue necrosis resulting in a skin slough?

 

 a.       Cisplatin

 

b.      Vincristine

c.       5-fluorouracil

d.      Dexamethasone

e.      Cyclophosphamide

Definition
Answer: B) vincristine
Term

      Which one of the following statements is FALSE about cancer chemotherapy?

a.       Most chemotherapeutic agents used to treat oncology patients kill normal and neoplastic cells by interrupting the cell cycle either directly or indirectly

b.      Theoretically, a tumor is usually clinically apparent when it is 1 cm3 volume or has undergone about 30 doublings

c.       Most tumor cells are susceptible to the cell killing effects of chemotherapy when the tumor is 2 cm3

d.      Cancer cells are most vulnerable to the cytotoxic effects of chemotherapeutic agents during the period of exponential growth

e.      Hair loss is uncommon in cats and dogs treated with chemotherapeutic agents

Definition
Answer: C) chemotherapy is better when the tumors are small - - smaller =better for once boys
Term

      A semi-solid preparation that is considered occlusive and consists of an oil-solid mixed with an oil base, is:

a.       A gel

b.      A cream

c.       A lotion

d.      A paste

e.      An ointment 

Definition

answer: E) OINTMENT 

NOT GEL - gel is alcohol based and non occulsive, where ointment is OIL (OIntment) based and occulsive 

Term

    Emollients are hydrating agents that increase cutaneous water content by:

a.       Attracting water into the skin by osmotic mechanisms

b.      Acting as occlusive agents that reduce water evaporation from the skin

c.       Acting as hygroscopic agents that chemically bind water to keratinocytes

d.      Removing lipids that block water movement into the skin

e.      Restoring natural moisturizing agents, such as cerumides, in the skin 

Definition
Answer: B) occulsive agents that reduce evaporation from the skin 
Term

      Which one of the following shampoo ingredients has strong degreasing properties and has anti-yeast activity (with minimal antibacterial properties)?

a.       Selenium sulfide

b.      Coal tar

c.       Salicyclic acid

d.      Benzoyl peroxide

e.      Sulfur 

Definition

Answer:A) Selenium sulfide - the wonder solution!!!

it is: Antifungal (esp Malassezia), degreaser, keratolytic and has some antibacterial 

Term

      The most important consideration to reduce serious, long-term, adverse effect of glucocorticoid therapy for autoimmune disease is:

a.       The choice between prednisone and prednisolone

b.      Dropping the daily dose of prednisone/prednisolone to levels below “immunosuppressive” doses

c.       Concurrent administration of H2 blockers and GI protectants

d.      Use of non-flourinated glucocorticoids

e.      Switching the dose to alternate days as soon as possible 

Definition
E) switch them to alternate day therapy ASAP
Term

    The drug listed below that is an antimetabolite used commonly in conjunction with something to treat auto immune skin diseases in the dog, is:

a.       Cyclosphosphamide

b.      Chlorambucil

c.       Prednisone

d.      Cyclosporine

e.      Azathioprine

 

  

Definition

Answer: E) Azathioprine 

seriously the only thing he said to know about azathioprine is that it is the only anti-metabolite 

Term

      Which of the following drugs is primarily used topically (for management of perianal fistulas or discoid lupus) and works by blocking cytokine (IL 2)

a.       Prednisolone

b.      Cyclosporine

c.       Tacrolimus

d.      Azothiaprine

e.      Niacinamide

Definition

Answer: Tacrolimus - inhibits IL2 and blocks T cells 

much more potent than cyclosporine 

=inhibits macrophage activation

(applied topically = wear gloves) 

 

Term

      Which one of the following anticoccidial drugs is the best choice for treating the sulfonamide-resistant coccidian outbreak in animals?

a.       Ponazuril

b.      Monensin

c.       Decoquinate

d.      Amprolium

Definition
Answer: A) Panazuril
Term

      The use of all the following anticoccidial drugs does not require a preslaughter withdrawal period when used in food animals except:

a.       Amprolim

b.      Decoquinate

c.       Lasalocid

d.      Sulfadimethoxine

Definition
Answer: D) Sulfadimethoxine
Term

     Toxic effects of monensin in mammals include:

a.       Asphyxia

b.      Cardiomyopathy

c.       Hepatotoxicity

d.      Nephrotoxicity

e.      Teratogenicity 

Definition

Answer: B) cardiomyopathy 

degeration of myocardium from increase contractility 

Term

      The following drugs have been used or have been suggested for the treatment of cryptosporidiosis except:

a.       Azithromycin

b.      Metronidazole

c.       Nitazoxanide

d.      Paromomycin 

Definition
Answer: B) metronidazole
Term

      The following drugs have be used or been suggested for the treatment of giardia except:

a.       Fenbendazole

b.      Metronidazole

c.       Sulfadimethoxine 

Definition
Answer: C) sulfadimethoxine
Term

     Which of the following antiprotozoal drugs is well known for its stimulatory effects of the parasympathetic nervous system due to its anti-cholinesterase activity?

a.       Ponazuril

b.      Paromomycin

c.       Ormetoprim

d.      Monensin

e.      Imidocarb 

Definition

Answer: E) imidocarb - used for babesia because it binds to its DNA and denatures it. It decreases AChE so it can cause SLUDD<- use atropine to reverse 

no cholinergic stimulants!! can be teratogenic and carcinogenic, irriatating and painful

 

Term

    Which of the following ectoparasiticides may most likely cause CNS depression, bradycardia, and GI stasis in animals?

a.       Amitraz

b.      Fipronil

c.       Ivermectin

d.      Permethrin

e.      Rotenone

Definition

Answer: A) Amitraz

Octopamine receptor agonist- HAS Alpha2 agonism!!!! 

Causes CNS depression, bradycardia, GI stasis-> colic

treats demodex, mites, ticks

Term

      The following are nicotinic receptor agonists that are used as flea adulticides. At the clinical doses, which one of them has the shortest duration of action?

a.       Dinotefuran

b.      Imidacloprid

c.       Nitenpyram

d.      Spnosad 

Definition

Answer: C) Nitenpyram (nicotinic R agonist) 

This is CAPSTAR - which is awesome, safe, fast but really SUPER short acting (like 24-48 hours max for flea killing) 

Term

    Which of the following is a true statement about cholinesterase inhibitors as ectoparasiticides?

a.       Cattle are more resistant to organophosphate poisoning than swine

b.      Pralidoxime (2-PAM) is still effective in reactivating cholinesterase 48 hours after onset of organophosphate poisoning

c.       When using 2-PAM, it always has to be administered concurrently with atropine sulfate

d.      2-PAM is a useful antidote for both carbamate and organophosphate poisonings

Definition

Answer: C) give 2-pam with atropine sulfate 

Organophosphates are anti-cholinesterase agents, can cause SLUDD. Reverse with atropine and AChE reactivator pralidoxime (2-pam)

= use this within 24 hours of exposure to organophosphate

Term

      Which of the following is a correct statement regarding ectoparasiticides?

a.       Macrocyclic lactones have knockdown effects on arthropods

b.      Amitraz is an approved miticide for horses

c.       Thio-organophosphates directly and potently inhibit cholinesterases

d.      Piperonyl butoxide increases the activity of a pyrethroid by inhibiting its degradation

Definition
Answer: D) it increases the activty of pyrethroids by inhibitor microsomal ezymes!
Term

      Which of the following anti-flea products also is effective against ticks?

a.       Fipronil

b.      Imidacloprid

c.       Lufenuron

d.      Metaflumizone

e.      Methoprene

Definition

Answer: Fipronil 

FRONTLINE baby

Term

      Which of the following should not be used concurrently with metaflumazone?

a.       Amitraz

b.      Ivermectin

c.       Lufenuron

d.      Permethrin

e.      Pyriproxyfen 

Definition

Answer: 

Metaflumizone is a Na+ channel blocker, shouldn't be used with permethrin because it is an AGONIST of Na+ channels

Term

    Which of the following is a true statement regarding the use of alkalinizing and acidifying agents to treat acid-base disturbances?

a.       Na acetate can only form HCO3- in the liver, whereas Na lactate can form in liver and skeletal muscle

b.      NH4Cl acidifies the body by releaseing HCl from NH4Cl

c.       Na gluconate may induce vomiting in dogs and cats

d.      NaCl acidifies the body by decreasing HCO3- reabsorption from the renal tubules 

Definition
Answer: D) NaCl acidified the body, decreases HCO3- reabsorption in renal tubules
Term

      Which of the following should serve as the most appropriate plasma expander, if homologous plasma is not available?

a.       Plasma from another species

b.      Lactated ringers solution

c.       6% hetastarch

d.      10% dextran40 

Definition
Answer: C) hetastarch because it is a colloid and will increase osmotic pull bringing more fluid into vessel and expanding plasma
Term

Which of the following is a correct statement regarding route of administration for fluids?

a.       Oral route is practical in animals with severe diarrhea-induced dehydration and acidosis

b.      Intravenous route causes fewer side effects than other routes

c.       Subcutaneous route is the safest for administering >30 mEq/L of KCl if parental administration is necessary

d.      Subcutaneous route is versatile because it can be used for administration of large isotonic, hypertonic, and hypotonic solution

Definition
Answer: C)
Term

1    How much of a 50% glucose solution would be needed to meet the daily maintenance required for a 25 kg dog?

a.       13 ml

b.      65 ml

c.       130 ml

d.      650 ml

e.      1300ml

Definition

Answer: dog needs 1300 Kcal,
glucose = 4g/kcal = 325 g

50g/100ml solution SO =325g

325 X 100 = 32,000/50 = 650 mL

ahhhh..stoichiometry 

Term

Which of the following solutions of sodium gluconate (m.w.= 218) is considered isotonic?

a.       6.6%

b.      3.3%

c.       1.6%

d.      0.8%

e.      0.4%

Definition
Answer: B) 3.3%
Term

How would you measure Bicarb to give a 35 kg dog with base deficit of 23 mEq/L?

Definition

 

Body weight X 0.3 X Base deficit 

35 X 0.3 X 23 = 241.5 mEq

BIcarb MW = 84; 

241.5mEq = 1mg/84

(241.5X84) = 20,286mg = 20.3g

 

Term

      Consider the patient in question 18 (35 kg ) the animal needs rehydration therapy. The ongoing loss of body water was estimated at 500 ml. From what you have learned, the total fluid that should be administered during the first 24 hours is approximately:

a.       1800 ml

b.      2300 ml

c.       3600 ml

d.      5300 ml 

e.  6700 ml

Definition

Answer: D) 

Maintanence + Ongoing loss + Deficit

 

 

Term

      Which of the following is a true statement regarding fluid therapy?

a.       When using amino acids to induce positive nitrogen balance, one does not need to add glucose to provide calories to the animal

b.      5% dextrose solution is a good choice for supplying calories for total nutritional therapy

c.       Dextran and hetastarch may interfere with fibrin clot formation

d.      Ringers solution contains 147 mEq/L Na+ , 4 mEq/L K+, 151 mEq/L Cl-, and no Ca+

Definition
Answer: C) dextran and hetastarch can interfere with fibrin clot formation
Term

  Which of the following is a true statement regarding hypokalemia ?

a.       In acute hypokalemia, K+ should be administered when the plasma K+ level drops to 3.5 mEq/L

b.      Hypokalemia may be seen in patients with hypoadrenocorticism

c.       ECG lead II recording in a hypokalemia patient may show high T waves

d.      Hypokalemia may induce an increase in myocardial Ca2+ levels 

Definition
Answer: D) hypokalemia can increase myocardial Ca2+ levels leading to cardiac arrhythmias
Term

      Which of the following is a true statement regarding special problems in fluid therapy ?

a.       Severe K+ deficit may be seen in anorectic cattle

b.      In horses, severe hypernatremia is usually associated with dehydration

c.       Metabolic alkalosis is usually associated with grain overload in cattle

d.      Vasoconstriction is usually seen during general anesthesia 

Definition

Answer: A) anorexic cattle will have hypokalemia and can cause alkalosis 

this can cause cardiac arrhythmias

Term

      Which of the following is a false statement regarding the administration of hypertonic solution?

a.       Its main use is for resuscitation of animals suffering from shock

b.      It may cause an increase in afterload because it may induce vasoconstriction

c.       It may cause volume overload and edema

d.      It is recommended in patients with blood coagulation problems 

Definition
Answer: B) Doesnt cause vasoconstriction and DECREASE afterload to the heart
Term

      Which of the following is a false statement regarding the administration of lipid therapy ?

a.       It is not needed unless the animal is on prolonged parental nutrition

b.      Each gram of lipid generates 4 Kcal

c.       The recommended dose is not more than 2 g/kg/day

d.      Dysfunction of granulocytes is an adverse effect of the therapy

e.      It is contraindicated in patients with high plasma concentration of triglycerides 

Definition

Answer: B) because each gram of lipid generates 9Kcal

(its glucose that is 4Kcal/g)

Term

   An aqueous solution of an antibiotic is applied to the conjunctiva and cornea. The most significant barrier to its penetration into the anterior chamber is:

a.       The tear-film

b.      Corneal epithelium

c.       Corneal stroma

d.      Corneal endothelium 

Definition
Answer: B) corneal epithelium
Term

      The best choice for topical treatment of one of the sources of pain accompanying a corneal ulcer is:

a.       Pilocarpine

b.      Prednisolone acetate

c.       Atropine

d.  phenylephrine

Definition
Answer: C) atropine
Term

      In order to treat uveitis (no corneal ulceration) the best topical drug is:

a.       Dexamethasone phosphate

b.      Prednisolone acetate

c.       Flurbuprophen sodium

d. Hydrocortisone sodium


Definition
Answer: B) prednisolone acetate
Term

      The two most useful drugs to keep in your exam room to facilitate examination of dogs and cats’ eyes would be:

a.       Acepromazine and lidocaine

b.      Tropicamide and proparacaine

c.       Phenylephrine and atropine

d.      “eye wash” and methylcellulose 

Definition
Answer: B) tropicamide and proparacaine
Term

     Which topically applied drug would you treat a cat with high intraocular pressure?

a.       Latanoprost

b.      Dorsolamide

c.       Brinzolamide

d.      Phenylephrine 

Definition
Answer: B) Dorsolamide
Term

      In order to treat keratomalacia (‘melting cornea”) you should chose a topical drug that is :

a.       Antiprotease

b.      Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

c.       Beta bocker

d.      Cox 2 inhibitor 

Definition
Answer: A) antiprotease
Term
Which of the following drug-reaction pairings is incorrect when used in cats?
A) Cisplatin - vasculitis
B) Benzocaine - aplastic anemia
C) Phosphate enema - hypocalcemia
D) Acetominophen - hepatic electrophiles
Definition
Answer: B) Benzocaine (or any benzyl containing substance) will cause CNS disorders in cats

they rest are all true
Term
When looking to control severe pain, which type of opioid analgesic would you use?
A) MU
B) KAPPA
C) SIGMA
Definition
MU
you would want a full mu agonist drug like morphine, hydromorphine, oxymorphone, fentanyl
Term
What is morphine mania? Which species does it occur in?
Definition
Caused by high doses of opioid or use of a full mu agonist in cats,
this causes excitement or dysphoria
Term
Which is longer acting: Butorphanol or Buprenorphine?
Definition
Buprenorphine -
longest acting (6-12 hours) but also has a longer onset (30+ mins)
Term
Midazolam is unreliable as a tranquilizer in young healthy dogs and cats, so what should you use in case you need to reverse it?
Definition
Flumazenil
Term
Which sedative can cause penile prolapse in horses?
Definition
Acepromazine
Term
Which Alpha-2 reversal agent is approved for use in horses?
A) Yohimbine
B) Atipamezole
C) Tolazoline
Definition
Answer: C) tolazoline
- but can cause tachycardia, sweating, licking, lip flipping, clear lacrimations, and muscle fasciculations
Term
Which opioid has the fewest side effects when used in the horse?
Definition
BUTORPHANOL
- other opioids can cause locomotor (pacing/circling) and unwanted excitant behavior, decreased GI motility
Term
At what % dehydration would skin tenting peak and STAY (not return to normal) ?
Definition
8-10%
Term
Which of the following solutions used in fluid therapy of metabolic acidosis may cause vomiting?
a) Na Citrate
b) Na Gluconate
c) Na Lacate
d) Na Acetate
Definition
Answer: A) Na Citrate
Term
If an animal is in need of fluid replacement, but its status is unknown, which solution should be your first choice?
Definition
LRS (Lactated Ringers Solution)
Term
What are some signs of hypokalemia?
Definition
decreased Potassium =
- weak skeletal muscle contractions
- cardiac arrhythmias (decreased Ca2+)
Term
What are some signs of hyperkalemia?
Definition
- neuromuscular excitability
-cardiac disturbances
- muscle twitching
Term
What is seen in anorexic cattle: hyper or Hypo kalemia?
Definition
HYPOKALEMIA (severe)
Term
Metabolic acidosis is more associated with grain overload or abomasal disease?
Definition
grain overload
Term
Metabolic aklalosis is more associated with grain overload or abomasal disease?
Definition
abomasal disease
Term
What is the preferred treatment for neosporosis?
Definition
Clindamycin (po or Im BID for 3-6 weeks)
Term
Why are ruminants more susceptible to anti-cholinesterase effects?
Definition
They have 50% less ChE than other species ~
more of risk of toxicity
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