Term
What factors are essential for normal functioning of the respiratory system?
|
|
Definition
• Integrity of the airway system to transport air to and from lungs
• Properly functioning alveolar system in lungs
• Properly functioning cardiovascular and hematological system
|
|
|
Term
A properly functioning alveolar system in the lungs does what?
|
|
Definition
• Oxygenates venous blood
• Removes carbon dioxide from blood
|
|
|
Term
| What are the components of the upper airway? |
|
Definition
Nose
Pharynx
Larynx
Epiglottis
|
|
|
Term
| What components are included in the larynx? |
|
Definition
Nasopharynx
Oropharynx
Laryngeal pharynx |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the upper airway? |
|
Definition
To warm, filter, and humidify inspired air
|
|
|
Term
| What are the components of the lower airway? |
|
Definition
Trachea
Right and left mainstem bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchioles
|
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the lower airway? |
|
Definition
• conduction of air
• mucociliary clearance
• production of pulmonary surfactant
|
|
|
Term
| The lungs extend from the ____________ to the ___________________. |
|
Definition
base of diaphragm
apex above first rib |
|
|
Term
The right lung has _____ lobes; the left lung has ______.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The lungs are composed of ________ tissue
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
cilia= _____________
alveoli=____________
surfactant= ________
pleura= ____________ |
|
Definition
microscopic projections
small air sacs
keeps alveoli open
covering membrane |
|
|
Term
The active phase of ventilation that involves movement of muscles and thorax to bring air into the lungs
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The passive phase of ventilation with
movement of air out of the lungs
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What occurs to the chest cavity during inspiration? |
|
Definition
• The diaphragm contracts and descends, lengthening the thoracic cavity
• The external intercostal muscles contract, lifting the ribs upward and outward
• The sternum is pushed forward, enlarging the chest from front to back
• Increased lung volume and decreased intrapulmonic pressure allow air to move from an area of greater pressure (outside lungs) to lesser pressure (inside lungs)
|
|
|
Term
Refers to the intake of oxygen and release of carbon dioxide
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gas exchange is made possible by ________ and _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the factors influencing diffusion of gases in the lungs? |
|
Definition
• Change in surface area available
• Thickening of alveolar-capillary membrane
• Partial pressure
• Solubility and molecular weight of the gas
|
|
|
Term
Where is the respiratory center located?
|
|
Definition
In the medulla of the brainstem, immediately above the spinal cord.
|
|
|
Term
What is respiration stimulated by?
|
|
Definition
• Increase in CO2
• Increase in hydrogen ions
• Decreased amount of oxygen in the arterial blood |
|
|
Term
Medulla stimulation increases rate and depth of ventilation to blow off ____ and increase _____.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens if chronic condition changes the oxygen and CO2 levels in the body (Ex. COPD)? |
|
Definition
| The chemoreceptors may become desensitized |
|
|
Term
How is oxygen is carried in the body?
|
|
Definition
| via plasma and red blood cells |
|
|
Term
Most oxygen (97%) is carried by red blood cells in the form of ____________.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemoglobin also carries carbon dioxide in the form of ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The upper chambers of the heart, the atria, receive blood from what veins? |
|
Definition
• the superior and inferior vena cava
• the left and right pulmonary veins
|
|
|
Term
| The lower chambers of the heart, the ventricles, force blood out of the heart through what arteries? |
|
Definition
• the left and right pulmonary arteries
• the aorta
|
|
|
Term
| What are the developmental considerations for infants regarding oxygenation (respiration)? |
|
Definition
• Lungs are transformed from fluid-filled structures to air-filled organs.
• The infant’s chest is small, airways are short, and aspiration is a potential problem.
• Respiratory rate is rapid and respirations are primarily abdominal.
• Synthetic surfactant can be given to the infant to reopen alveoli.
• Crackles heard at the end of deep respiration are normal.
|
|
|
Term
| What are the developmental considerations for children regarding oxygenation (respiration)? |
|
Definition
• Some subcutaneous fat is deposited on the chest wall making landmarks less prominent.
• Eustachian tubes, bronchi, and bronchioles are elongated and less angular.
• The average number of routine colds and infections decreases until children enter daycare or school.
• Good hand hygiene and tissue etiquette are encouraged.
• By end of late childhood, the immune system protects from most infections.
|
|
|
Term
Rigid tissues and airways, coupled
with fractured ribs in the elderly would increase risk of _______________.
|
|
Definition
| atelectasis and pneumonia |
|
|
Term
Low-pitched soft sound during expiration heard over most of lungs
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
High-pitched and longer, heard primarily over trachea
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Medium pitch and sound during expiration, heard over upper anterior chest and intercostal area
|
|
Definition
| Bronchovesicular breath sounds |
|
|
Term
| Crackles are heard during ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Wheezes are usually louder during ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The amount of air contained within the lungs at maximum inspiration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The amount of air displaced by maximal exhalation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The amount of air left in the lungs at maximal expiration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The maximum flow attained during the forced expiratory maneuver. |
|
Definition
| Peak expiratory flow rate |
|
|
Term
| What needs to be charted regarding body fluids? |
|
Definition
Color
Odor
Amount
Consistency
How the client is tolerating it |
|
|
Term
Inhalers that disperse fine particles of medication into deeper passages of respiratory tract where absorption occurs.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Inhalers that deliver controlled dose of medication with each compression of the canister.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Inhalers activated by the patient’s inspiration.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____________ open narrowed airways (by nebulizer or MDIs to open narrowed airways)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___________ liquefy or
loosen thick secretions
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____________ reduce inflammation in airways
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Firm plastic tube with drainage holes in the proximal end that is inserted into the pleural space between lining of lungs and ribs to allow compressed lung tissue to re-expand.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the ABCs of Administering Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation? |
|
Definition
Airway—tip the head and check for breathing
Breathing—if victim is not breathing spontaneously, give two breaths lasting 1.5 to 2 seconds
Circulation—check the pulse; if
victim has no pulse, initiate
chest compressions
|
|
|
Term
| Respiration, gas exchange, occurs at the ______________________. |
|
Definition
terminal alveolar capillary system.
|
|
|
Term
Incomplete lung expansion or the collapse of alveoli, known as ___________, prevents __________ and the exchange of gas by ___________ in the lungs.
|
|
Definition
atelectasis
pressure changes
diffusion |
|
|
Term
____________ has greater solubility in the respiratory membranes and diffuses more rapidly than ____________.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hypoxia is often caused by ______________.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chemoreceptors in the ___________ and ___________ are sensitive to arterial blood gas levels and blood pressure and can activate the respiratory center in the medulla. |
|
Definition
aortic arch
carotid bodies |
|
|
Term
| ___________ in the muscles and joints respond to body movements, such as exercise, and cause an increase in ventilation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Meals should be eaten __________ hours after breathing treatments and exercises |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What interventions can be used for promoting patient comfort in a patient with breathing problems? |
|
Definition
proper positioning
adequate fluid intake
humidification of inspired air
appropriate breathing techniques
Performing chest physiotherapy
Maintaining good nutrition
|
|
|
Term
| People with dyspnea and orthopnea are most comfortable in a __________ position. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients can help keep their secretions thin by drinking __________ of clear fluids daily. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Exhaling through pursed lips creates a smaller opening for air movement, effectively slowing and prolonging ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What interventions can be used with patients who have breathing problems?
|
|
Definition
Teaching about a pollution-free env.
Promoting optimal function
Promoting proper breathing
Managing chest tubes
Promoting and controlling coughing
Promoting comfort
Meeting respiratory needs with medications
|
|
|
Term
| How can you promote proper breathing in a patient? |
|
Definition
• Deep breathing (make each breath deep enough to move the bottom ribs)
• Using incentive spirometry
• Pursed-lip breathing
• Abdominal or diaphragmatic breathing
|
|
|
Term
| What does diaphragmatic breathing do? |
|
Definition
Reduces the respiratory rate
Increases tidal volume
Reduces functional residual capacity |
|
|
Term
| The respiratory secretion expelled by coughing or clearing the throat is called __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Coughing is most effective when the patient is ______________________. |
|
Definition
| sitting upright with feet flat on the floor |
|
|
Term
| ___________ are drugs that facilitate the removal of respiratory tract secretions by reducing the viscosity of the secretions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____________ are drugs that depress a body function—in this case, the cough reflex. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a productive cough is suppressed, secretions can be retained, leading to a _____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________ generally control coughs by the local anesthetic effect of benzocaine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Delay postural drainage for _______ hours after meals to avoid provoking vomiting. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Medical term for urination |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum urinary output per hour? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pressure of urine in bladder stimulates ____________, usually at __________.
|
|
Definition
stretch receptors
150-250 mL |
|
|
Term
| Micturition depends on what components? |
|
Definition
| kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra. |
|
|
Term
| What is the daily urinary output of an infant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the daily urinary output of an 1 year old? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In school-age children, kidneys double in size between _________ years of age |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The spinal cord voiding reflex is at _____________.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Voluntary control of micturition is due to what components? |
|
Definition
• nerves supplying bladder
• urethra
• neural tracers of cord and brain
• motor area of cerebrum
|
|
|
Term
| What are the developmental considerations for the elderly regarding urinary elimination? |
|
Definition
• Arteriosclerosis reduces blood flow
• Number of nephrons decreased which decreases filtering
• Increased urgency and frequency
• Increased nocturnal frequency
• Urine retention
|
|
|
Term
| _____ drugs cause urinary retention, while ________ increase urinary output. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A C&S is positive if it shows at least ________ organisms per ml of urine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____________ remove the end products of metabolism and regulate fluid balance.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Urine from the nephrons empties into the __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The bladder is composed of three layers of muscle tissue called ________ muscle
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What occurs in the process of emptying the bladder?
|
|
Definition
• Detrusor muscle contracts, internal sphincter relaxes, urine enters posterior urethra
• Muscles of perineum and external sphincter relax
• Muscle of abdominal wall contracts slightly
• Diaphragm lowers, micturition occurs
|
|
|
Term
| __________ is synonymous with kidney shutdown or renal failure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______ is painful or difficult urination |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________ is the presence of sugar in the urine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________ is pus in the urine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
__________ prevent reabsorption of water and certain electrolytes in tubules
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____________ medications stimulate contraction of detrusor muscle, producing urination.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________________ suppress CNS, diminish effectiveness of neural reflex in micturition.
|
|
Definition
| Analgesics and tranquilizers |
|
|
Term
What do the following drugs do to the color of urine:
Anticoagulants
Diuretics
Pyridium
Elavil
Levodopa |
|
Definition
Anticoagulants—red urine
Diuretics—pale yellow urine
Pyridium—orange to orange-red urine
Elavil—green or blue-green urine
Levodopa—brown or black urine
|
|
|
Term
| What should be checked regarding the kidneys during a physical assessment of urinary functioning? |
|
Definition
| costovertebral tenderness |
|
|
Term
| What should be checked regarding the urinary bladder during a physical assessment of urinary functioning? |
|
Definition
| palpate and percuss the bladder or use bedside scanner |
|
|
Term
| What should be checked regarding the urethral meatus during a physical assessment of urinary functioning? |
|
Definition
| inspect for signs of infection, discharge, or odor |
|
|
Term
| What should be checked regarding the skin during a physical assessment of urinary functioning? |
|
Definition
| color, texture, turgor, and excretion of wastes |
|
|
Term
| What should be checked regarding the urine during a physical assessment of urinary functioning? |
|
Definition
| color, odor, clarity, and sediment |
|
|
Term
| What patients are at Risk for UTIs? |
|
Definition
Sexually active women
Women who use diaphragms for contraception
Postmenopausal women
Individuals with indwelling urinary catheter
Individuals with diabetes mellitus
Elderly people
|
|
|
Term
_____________ incontinence results from an increase in intra-abdominal pressure.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
__________ incontinence results from urine lost during an abrupt and strong desire to void.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_________ incontinence results from over-distention and overflow of the bladder.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___________ incontinence is caused by factors outside the urinary tract.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_________ incontinence is the emptying of the bladder without sensation of need to void.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
__________ incontinence is a continuous, unpredictable loss of urine.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the primary organ of bowel elimination?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The large intestines extends from the ___________ to the __________.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of the large intestines? |
|
Definition
Completion of absorption
Manufacture of some vitamins
Formation of feces
Expulsion of feces from the body
|
|
|
Term
| Peristalsis is under control of the ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Contractions of peristalsis occur every __________ minutes
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mass peristalsis sweeps occur ___________ times each 24-hour period.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_________ of food waste is excreted in stool within 24 hours.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In infants, the characteristics of stool and frequency depend on __________________.
|
|
Definition
| formula or breast feedings |
|
|
Term
In toddlers, ______________ is first priority for bowel training
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the constipating foods?
|
|
Definition
| cheese, lean meat, eggs, pasta |
|
|
Term
What are the foods with laxative effect?
|
|
Definition
| fruits and vegetables, bran, chocolate, alcohol, coffee |
|
|
Term
What are the gas-producing foods?
|
|
Definition
| onions, cabbage, beans, cauliflower |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of the following medications on stool?
Aspirin, anticoagulants
Iron salts
Antacids
Antibiotics
|
|
Definition
• Aspirin, anticoagulants—pink to red to black stool
• Iron salts—black stool
• Antacids—white discoloration or speckling in stool
• Antibiotics—green-gray color
|
|
|
Term
| When collecting stool using the technique “timed specimen,” the nurse should consider the first stool passed by the patient as the start of the collection period. True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A ___________ visualizes the rectum, colon, and bowel using a lighted scope. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An _______________ examines the esophagus, stomach, and upper duodenum through an optic scope. |
|
Definition
| esophagogastroduodenoscopy |
|
|
Term
| A ___________ examines the distal sigmoid colon, rectum, and anal canal through a flexible or rigid sigmoidoscope. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ series involves fluoroscopic examination of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine after ingestion of barium sulfate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What indirect visualization studies are used with the GI tract? |
|
Definition
Upper gastrointestinal (UGI)
Small bowel series
Barium enema
|
|
|
Term
| How should bowel diagnostic tests be prioritized? |
|
Definition
1 — fecal occult blood test
2 — barium studies (should precede UGI)
3 — endoscopic examinations
|
|
|
Term
| What can be done to promoting regular bowel habits? |
|
Definition
Timing
Positioning
Privacy
Nutrition
Exercise (Abdominal settings, Thigh strengthening)
|
|
|
Term
| What individuals are at a high risk for constipation? |
|
Definition
• Patients on bed rest taking constipating medicines
• Patients with reduced fluids or bulk in their diet
• Patients who are depressed
• Patients with central nervous system disease or local lesions that cause pain
|
|
|
Term
After diarrhea stops, suggest the intake of ________________.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________ enemas destroy intestinal parasites. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________ enemas lubricate the stool and intestinal mucosa making defecation easier. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________ enemas help expel flatus from the rectum. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________ enemas administer fluids and nutrition rectally. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The patient's stoma size should stabilize within ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Your role as a nurse concerning sexuality is _____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sense of being female or male |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| It describes the biological aspects of sexuality such as genital sexual activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Biological identity is determined at ____________.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
By age _________ children are aware that they either girls or boys
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The way that a person acts as either female or male.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sexual identity does not match the biological body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___________ is usually a heterosexual man who periodically dresses like a woman for psychological and sexual relief
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Clear, persistent, erotic preference of a person for one sex or the other
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the forms of sexual expression? |
|
Definition
Masturbation
Sexual intercourse
Oral-genital stimulation
Celibacy
Alternate forms (Sadism, masochism, pedophilia)
|
|
|
Term
sexual decisions that transgress a person’s ethical code may
result in _______________.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Psychological forces that prevent violation of sexual rules in many cultures are ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Body exploration and genital fondling is normal in this age group and you should avoid punishment for genital fondling to prevent shame and guilt.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Parental overreaction to exploration of genitals and masturbation in this age group can lead to feelings that sex is “bad”
|
|
Definition
| Preschooler(4 to 6 years) |
|
|
Term
| This age group explores own and playmates’ body parts. |
|
Definition
| Preschooler(4 to 6 years) |
|
|
Term
Advise parents to discuss basic information about sexual intercourse, menstruation, and reproduction by age _______.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In adulthood, __________ rather than quantity of sexual experiences becomes important
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ lies over the symphysis pubis. Sensitive during sexual activity
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
surrounds the vaginal orifice & empties mucous secretion through a small duct in which the opening lies within the labia minora.
|
|
Definition
Vestibular gland (Bartholin’s gland)
|
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of the Vagina? |
|
Definition
• A canal lined with mucus membrane
• Rugated that extends upward and backward from the vulva to the cervix
• Anterior bladder and urethra, posterior rectum
• The upper part of the vagina , the fornix, surrounds the cervix
|
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of the cervix? |
|
Definition
• Pear shaped, muscular, 3 in long, 2in wide and 0.5 in thick. The size varies.
• Posterior to the bladder
• Has two parts: the cervix and fundus
• Has three layers: perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium
|
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of the ovaries? |
|
Definition
• oval bodies about 1.2in.
• Behind and below the fallopian tubes.
• Contain 300,00- 400,000 follicles at menarche
• Estimated 500 eggs mature for possible fertilization
• Ova are released from the ovaries during ovulation
• Secrete estrogen and progesterone
|
|
|
Term
What occurs during the proliferative phase?
|
|
Definition
• Begins in hypothalamus → gonadotropin releasing hormone
• pituitary gland → large # follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and small # luteinizing hormone (LH).
• FSH and LH travel through the blood stream → stimulate the ovaries (follicles)
• Increasing levels of estrogen acts as a negative feedback system( follicular phase)
• A few days before ovulation, all but one follicle begins to regress.
• Affected by estrogen the one follicle (occasionally more than one) grows rapidly and is known as the graafian follicle
• increasing estrogen production influences the pituitary to increase production of LH which begins the secretory phase
|
|
|
Term
What occurs during the secretory phase?
|
|
Definition
• Ovulation occurs at day 14 of a 28 day
• Rupture of the graafian follicle
• Release of a mature ova or egg and is picked up by the fallopian tube
• Travels to the uterus
|
|
|
Term
| The ruptured follicle becomes the _______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The corpus luteum produces large amounts of ____________ and is maintained by levels of ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What occurs during the Luteal phase? |
|
Definition
• Estrogen levels begin to decrease at this time
• If pregnant: corpus luteum remains to secrete progesterone until the placenta develops ( 6 to 8 weeks after conception)
• If not pregnancy: LH levels decrease, the corpus luteum degenerates estrogen and progesterone levels decrease and the luteal phase ends
|
|
|
Term
A new menstrual cycle begins with sloughing because the __________ and __________ repeat hormonal stimulation
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the phases of the menstrual cycle?
Explain each one. |
|
Definition
• The proliferative phase - before ovulation, High levels of estrogen thicken the uterine endometrium. Cervical mucous- more clear and slippery and very stretchable. This peaks at ovulation and produce an environment receptive to the entrance of sperm for fertilization
• The secretory phase - occurs after ovulation. high levels of progesterone and estrogen, the endometrium continues to thicken to prepare to nourish a fertilized egg
• Menstrual Phase - If not pregnant: the endometrium begins to slough because of decreased LH and progesterone.
|
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of the testes? |
|
Definition
• Comparable to a woman’s ovaries
• Progress along the canal into the scrotum
• Contain seminiferous tubules
• Gynosperm- x bearing. Androsperm- y bearing.
• Testes produce testosterone → preserves the male sex characteristics
|
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of the scrotum? |
|
Definition
• sac containing the testes
• The outer skin is loose and flexible
• Left side is lower than the right
• Affected by temperatures and tight clothes
|
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of the epididymis?
|
|
Definition
• Over the testes and are tightly coiled ducts
• Carry sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the vas deferens.
• Coiled 20 ft long! Takes 12-20 days for sperm to travel through coil. |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of the vas deferens? |
|
Definition
• the extension of the epididymis of the testes
• joins the seminal vesicle passing over the top than down the posterior surface of the bladder to form the ejaculatory duct.
• Sperm mature as they pass through vas deferens.
• Severing this cord results in Vasectomy |
|
|
Term
| The male urethra is a hollow tube leading from base of the __________ passing through the __________ to outside through shaft and penis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What collectively produces the substance known as seminal plasma?
|
|
Definition
The seminal vesicles
The prostate gland
Bulbo urethral gland (Cowper’s gland)
|
|
|
Term
| The penis is filled with what sponge like tissue? |
|
Definition
corpus cavernosum
corpus spongiosum |
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Term
| What occurs in climacteric in women? |
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Definition
• decreased estrogen
• thinning vaginal tissues
• fatigue
• decreased onset of and amount of vaginal secretions
• clitoris becomes smaller
• vaginal canal decreased in size
• uterus lowers
• decreased orgasmic phase
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Term
Hormone replacement therapy causes an increased risk for _______________.
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Definition
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Term
| What occurs in climacteric in men? |
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Definition
• need more genital stimulation
• decrease secretions from Cowper’s gland
• decreased ability to maintain an erection longer before ejaculation
• slower or decreased firmness of erection
• decreased testicular elevation
• absent orgasmic phase
• longer refractory periods (time it takes to achieve another erection) |
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Term
| What are Watts General Levels of Sexual History? |
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Definition
Level 1—part of comprehensive health history, obtained by a nurse
Level 2—sexual history, obtained by a nurse trained in sexuality
Level 3—sexual problem history, obtained by a sex therapist
Level 4—psychiatric/psychosocial history, obtained by a psychiatric nurse clinician
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Term
| When is a sex physical assessment completed on a woman? |
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Definition
• Suspected STI
• Suspected Pregnancy
• Workup for infertility
• Unusual lump, discharge, or appearance of the genital organs noticed by client
• Birth control
• Change in urinary function |
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Term
| What hormone levels need to be assessed concerning sexuality? |
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Definition
FSH, LH, prolactin, estrogen and progesterone and testosterone
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Term
| When should pap smears begin? |
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Definition
3 yrs. after sexually active or Age 21
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Term
| What are the types of pap smears? |
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Definition
Conventional slide or ThinPrep
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Term
| Annual screening mammogram is recommended for women _____ and over. |
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Definition
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Term
| What should you instruct a patient on before a mammogram? |
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Definition
No powders, creams or deodorant before test
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Term
| What should the prostrate feel like? |
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Definition
Should be firm, smooth, mobile, & nontender
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Term
| What considerations should be made for a prostate exam? |
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Definition
No ejaculation for 24 hours before
Draw PSA before DRE
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Term
______, if used with ______ will yield 90% of cancer detected.
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Definition
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Term
Less than _____ ng /mL of PSA is normal, while above _____ ng /mL indicates cancer
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Definition
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Term
__________ and ___________ have higher PSA levels.
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Definition
Older men
african-americans |
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Term
| The state in which an individual or group experiences uncertainty about a course of action when the choice of options involves risk, loss or challenge to personal life values |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the benefits of estrogen therapy(ET)? |
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Definition
| suppression of menopausal symptoms prevention of osteoporosis |
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Term
| What are the benefits of estrogen/progestin combos therapy(EPT)? |
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Definition
| protect from colorectal CA |
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Term
| What are the risks of estrogen/progestin combos therapy(EPT)? |
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Definition
MI
stroke
DVT
PE
breast CA
gallbladder disease
urinary incontinence
dementia |
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Term
| What are the risks of estrogen therapy(ET)? |
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Definition
stroke
DVT
ovarian CA
uterine CA
gallbladder disease
urinary incontinence |
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Term
| What is the main androgen? |
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Definition
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Term
| Insufficient testosterone production by testes |
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Definition
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Term
Hypogonadism occurs primarly by a _________________ and secondarily by _________________.
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Definition
testicular abnormality
hypothalamic or pituitary failure |
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Term
| What are the adverse effects of testosterone therapy? |
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Definition
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Term
Antiandrogens are used for treatment of _________ & _____________.
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Definition
Benign prostatic hypertrophy
Cancer |
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Term
SBE should be completed monthly in women over _____, by physician every 3 years in women _____ and yearly over ____.
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Definition
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Term
___________ and _______ are abnormal during a breast exam.
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Definition
discharge from nipples
dimpling |
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Term
cancerous lesion in breast tissue is __________________.
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Definition
| hard, fixed, non tender, irregular in shape |
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Term
Internal emotional reaction to loss
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Definition
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Term
State of grieving from loss of a loved one
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Definition
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Term
Actions and expressions of grief that make up outward expression of grief
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Definition
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Term
What is the definition of death according to the Uniform Definition of Death Act (1981)?
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Definition
An individual who has sustained either:
1. irreversible cessation of all functions of circulatory and respiratory functions or
2. irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brain stem, is dead. |
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Term
| Most death protocols require ____ separate clinical examinations |
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Definition
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Term
Special attention is given regarding determination of death to children under age ______.
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Definition
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Term
What is the Medical criteria used to certify a death?
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Definition
• cessation of breathing
• no response to deep painful stimuli
• lack of reflexes (such as the gag or corneal reflex)
• spontaneous movement
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Term
What must be done to prepare the body for discharge?
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Definition
• Place the body in anatomical position, replace dressings, and remove tubes (unless there is an autopsy scheduled).
• Place identification tags on the body.
• Follow local law if patient died of communicable disease.
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Term
| What are the components of a “good death” |
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Definition
• Allows death on client’s own terms
• Relatively free of pain with dignity
• Free of avoidable distress and suffering
• Reasonably consistent with clinic, culture and ethics
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Term
___________ believe the afterlife is determined on how you die (heaven if died in war or childbirth).
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Definition
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Term
| In ________ widows were highly encouraged to lie down on the funeral pyre (fire) with their deceased husbands. (This has been made illegal several times but was still happening.) |
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Definition
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Term
| _________ teaches self-mummification which took the priest 2000 days to complete (fruit/nut diet to remove fat, toxic tea to remove fluid, then sit in walled in box until death). |
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Definition
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Term
| Clients must have a body temp above ____°F, with drug and metabolic disturbances excluded to be declared dead. |
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Definition
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Term
In Louisiana Hospitals death is pronounced by the ______________.
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Definition
| physician after examination |
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Term
| In Louisiana Hospice death is pronounced by the _________________. |
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Definition
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Term
In Louisiana Nursing homes death is announced by the ____________________.
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Definition
| absence of vital signs which is called to the MD, who can pronounce over the phone. |
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Term
| When must an autopsy be performed in Louisiana? |
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Definition
• Cause of death is not on chart (unknown)
• Death occurred within 48 hours after invasive procedure
• Death occurred on a general care floor without a ‘no-code’ or terminal illness
• All OB and perinatal deaths (up to 6 weeks after delivery)
• All neonatal and pediatric deaths (up to 18 years of age) except for non-viable infants admitted for comfort measures only
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Term
If a question regarding necessity of autopsy occurs, the nurse can contact the ___________ over the phone for their directive.
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Definition
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Term
As most health facilities do not have morgues, the ________ is contacted after death and the body is removed ASAP.
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Definition
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Term
| In general, there must be no history of _____________ with an organ donor. |
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Definition
| chronic disease, infection or cancers (except brain tumor) |
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Term
| Adaptation System that involves only one specific body part. |
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Definition
| Local Adaptation System (LAS) |
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Term
| What are the responses of the Local Adaptation System (LAS)? |
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Definition
Reflex pain response
Inflammatory response
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Term
| Adaptation Syndrome that is a biochemical model of stress. |
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Definition
| General Adaptation Syndrome |
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Term
| What are the stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome? |
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Definition
Alarm reaction
Stage of resistance
Stage of exhaustion |
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Term
| What occurs during the Alarm Reaction stage of General Adaptation Syndrome? |
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Definition
• Person perceives stressor, defense mechanisms activated
• Fight-or-flight response
• Hormone levels rise, body prepares to react
• Shock and counter-shock phases
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Term
| What occurs during the stage of resistance of the General Adaptation Syndrome? |
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Definition
• Body attempts to adapt to stressor
• Vital signs, hormone levels, and energy production return to normal
• Body regains homeostasis or adaptive mechanisms fail
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Term
| What occurs during the Stage of Exhaustion of the General Adaptation Syndrome? |
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Definition
• Results when adaptive mechanisms are exhausted
• Body either rests and mobilizes its defenses to return to normal or dies
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Term
| What is the most common emotional response to stress? |
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Definition
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Term
_________ anxiety narrows a person’s perceptual fields so that the focus is on immediate concerns, with inattention to other communications and details.
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Definition
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Term
| __________ anxiety increases alertness and perceptual fields (e.g., vision and hearing) and motivates learning and growth. |
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Definition
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Term
| __________ anxiety creates a very narrow focus on specific details, causing all behavior to be geared toward getting relief. The person has impaired learning ability and is easily distracted. |
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Definition
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Term
| A person attempts to overcome a perceived weakness by emphasizing a more desirable trait or overachieving in a more comfortable area. |
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Definition
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Term
| A person refuses to acknowledge the presence of a condition that is disturbing. |
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Definition
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Term
| A person transfers an emotional reaction from one object or person to another object or person. |
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Definition
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Term
| A person incorporates qualities or values of another person into his or her own ego structure. This mechanism is important in the formation of conscience during childhood. |
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Definition
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Term
| A person’s thoughts or impulses are attributed to someone else. |
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Definition
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Term
A person tries to give a logical or socially acceptable explanation for questionable behavior
(“behavior justification”). |
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Definition
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Term
| A person develops conscious attitudes and behavior patterns that are opposite to what he or she would really like to do. |
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Definition
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Term
| A person returns to an earlier method of behaving. |
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Definition
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Term
| A person voluntarily excludes an anxiety-producing event from conscious awareness. |
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Definition
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Term
| A person substitutes a socially acceptable goal for one whose normal channel of expression is blocked. |
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Definition
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Term
| An act or communication used to negate a previous act or communication. |
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Definition
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Term
| ________ behavior occurs when a person attempts to overcome obstacles to satisfy a need; it may be constructive, with assertive problem solving, or destructive, with feelings and actions of aggressive anger and hostility. |
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Definition
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Term
| ___________ behavior involves physical withdrawal from the threat, or emotional reactions such as admitting defeat, becoming apathetic, or feeling guilty and isolated. |
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Definition
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Term
| __________ behavior is usually constructive, often involving the substitution of goals or negotiation to partially fulfill one’s needs. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the Effects of Long-Term Stress? |
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Definition
• Affects physical status
• Increases risk for disease or injury
• Compromises recovery and return to normal function
• Is associated with specific diseases
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Term
___________ stress occurs when person progresses through stages of growth and development
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Definition
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|
Term
_________ stress does not occur in predictable patterns
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Definition
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Term
What are the Physiologic stressors?
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Definition
Chemical agents
physical agents
infectious agents
nutritional imbalances
hypoxia
genetic or immune disorders
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Term
| What are the categories of stress? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the Types of Stressors? |
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Definition
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Term
| ______________ focuses on psychologically preparing a person for an unfamiliar or painful event. |
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Definition
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Term
| In ____________, a person creates a mental image, concentrates on the image, and becomes less responsive to stimuli (including pain). |
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Definition
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Term
| ____________ is a method of gaining mental control of the autonomic nervous system and thus regulating body responses, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and headaches |
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Definition
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Term
| ____________ is a five-step problem-solving technique designed to promote a more adaptive outcome, including improved abilities to cope with future crises. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What are the steps of Crisis intervention? |
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Definition
1. Identify the problem
2. List alternatives
3. Choose from among alternatives
4. Implement the plan
5. Evaluate the outcome |
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