Term
| What are the factors affecting growth and development? |
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Definition
1. Genetic heredity 2. Prenatal, individual, and caregiver factors 3. Environment & Nutrition |
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Term
| The study of the structure and interactions of all the genes in the human body, including their interactions with each other as well as the environment. |
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Definition
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Term
| The first trend, with the head and brain developing first, followed by the trunk, legs, and feet. |
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Definition
| Cephalocaudal development |
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Term
| Growth progresses from gross motor movements (such as learning to lift one’s head) to fine motor movements (such as learning to pick up a toy with the fingers). |
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Definition
| Proximodistal development |
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Term
| Both sides of the body developing equally |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What trends does growth development occur in? |
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Definition
1. Cephalocaudal development 2. Proximodistal development 3. Symmetric development |
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Term
| What are the principles of growth and development? |
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Definition
1. Growth and development are orderly and sequential as well as continuous and complex. 2. Growth and development follow regular and predictable trends. 3. Growth and development are both differentiated and integrated. 4. Different aspects of growth and development occur atdifferent stages and at different rates, and can be modified. 5. The pace of growth and development is specific for each person. |
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Term
| Freud identified the underlying stimulus for human behavior as sexuality, which he called __________. |
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Definition
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Term
| General pleasure-seeking instincts rather than purely genital gratification. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What are the major components of Freud’s theory? |
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Definition
•the unconscious mind •the id •the ego •the superego |
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Term
| Contains memories, motives, fantasies, and fears that are not accessible to recall but that directly affect behavior. |
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Definition
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Term
| Part of the mind concerned with self-gratification by the easiest and quickest available means. |
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Definition
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Term
| ______________ are a means of unconscious coping to reduce stress in the conscious mind when the id’s impulses cannot be satisfied. |
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Definition
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Term
| Conscious part of the mind that serves as a mediator between the desires of the id and the constraints of reality so that one might live effectively within one’s social, physical, and psychological environment. |
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Definition
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Term
| Includes one’s intelligence, memory, problem solving, separation of reality from fantasy, and incorporation of experiences and learning into future behavior. |
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Definition
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Term
| Development of ________ allows the infant, by 6 months of age, to view self as separate from others and to begin to alter behaviors in response to cues. |
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Definition
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Term
| Part of the mind that represents one’s conscience. |
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Definition
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Term
| Represents the internalization of rules and values so that socially acceptable behavior is practiced. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What are Freud's stages of development? |
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Definition
Oral Stage (Ages 0 to 18 Months) Anal Stage (Ages 8 Months to 4 years) Phallic Stage (Ages 3 to 7 Years) Latency Stage (Ages 7 to 12 years) Genital Stage (Ages 12 to 20 Years)
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Term
| Theory stating that learning occurs as a result of the internal organization of an event,forming a mental schema (plan) and serving as a base for further schemata as one grows and develops. |
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Definition
| Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development |
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Term
| Process of integrating new experiences into existing schemata. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| An alteration of existing thought processes (schemata) to manage more complex information. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the stages of Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development? |
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Definition
1. Sensorimotor Stage (Birth to 24 Months) 2. Preoperational Stage (Ages 2 to 7 Years) 3. Concrete Operational Stage (Ages 7 to 11 Years) 4. Formal Operational Stage (Age 11 Years or Older) |
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Term
| This stage is characterized by the beginning use of symbols,through increased language skills and pictures, to represent the preschooler’s world. |
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Definition
| Preoperational Stage (Ages 2 to 7 Years) |
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Term
| in this stage, children learn by manipulating concrete or tangible objects and can classify articles according to two or more characteristics. |
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Definition
| Concrete Operational Stage (Ages 7 to 11 Years |
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Term
| This stage is characterized by the use of abstract thinking and deductive reasoning. |
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Definition
| Formal Operational Stage (Age 11 Years or Older |
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Term
| Erikson's psychosocial theory is based on what major organizing concepts? |
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Definition
1.Stages of development 2.Developmental goals or tasks 3.Psychosocial crises 4.The process of coping |
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Term
| The preoperational stage of Piaget's theory is divided into what parts? |
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Definition
1. Preconceptual stage (ages 2 to 4 years) 2. Intuitive stage (ages 4 to 7 years) |
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Term
| In this stage of Piaget's theory, logical thinking is developing, with an understanding of reversibility, relations between numbers,and loss of egocentricity, in addition to the ability to incorporate another’s perspective. |
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Definition
| Concrete Operational Stage (Ages 7 to 11 Years) |
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Term
| What are the stages of Erikson's Theories of Psychosocial Development? |
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Definition
1. Trust versus Mistrust (Infancy) 2. Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt (Toddler) 3. Initiative versus Guilt (Preschool) 4. Industry versus Inferiority (School-Aged Children) 5. Identity versus Role Confusion (Adolescence) 6. Intimacy versus Isolation (Young Adulthood) 7. Generativity versus Stagnation (Middle Adulthood) 8. Ego Integrity versus Despair (Later Adulthood) |
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Term
| In what stage of Erikson's theory does the infant learns to rely on caregivers to meet basic needsof warmth, food, and comfort? |
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Definition
| Trust versus Mistrust (Infancy) |
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Term
| In what stage of Erikson's theory does the toddler (ages 1 to 3 years) learn from the environment and gain independence through encouragement from caregivers to feed, dress, and toilet self. |
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Definition
| Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt |
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Term
| In what stage of Erikson's theory is confidence gained as a caregiver allows the preschooler (ages 4 to 6 years) to take the initiative in learning, so that the child actively seeks out new experiences and explores the how and why of activities. |
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Definition
| Initiative versus Guilt (Preschool) |
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Term
| In what stage of Erikson's theory does the school-aged child gain pleasure from finishing projects and receiving recognition for accomplishments? |
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Definition
| Industry versus Inferiority (School-Aged Children) |
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Term
| In what stage of Erikson's theory does many physical changes occur with the adolescent in transition from childhood to adulthood. |
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Definition
| Identity versus Role Confusion (Adolescence) |
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Term
| In what stage of Erikson's theory does many physical changes occur with the adolescent in transition from childhood to adulthood. |
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Definition
| Identity versus Role Confusion (Adolescence) |
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Term
| In what stage of Erikson's theory does the young adult unite self-identity with identities of friends and make commitments to others. |
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Definition
| Intimacy versus Isolation (Young Adulthood) |
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Term
| In what stage of Erikson's theory is there is a desire to make a contribution to the world? |
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Definition
| Generativity versus Stagnation (Middle Adulthood) |
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Term
| In what stage of Erikson's theory does one reminiscence about life events which provides a sense of fulfillment and purpose. |
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Definition
| Ego Integrity versus Despair (Later Adulthood) |
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Term
Who described learned behaviors as developmental tasks that occur at certain periods in life? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What are Havighurst's developmental tasks? |
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Definition
Infancy and Early Childhood Middle Childhood Adolescence Young Adulthood Middle Adulthood Later Maturity |
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Term
__________ studied men and women between the ages of16 and 60 years, labeling the central theme for the adult years as “transformation,” with specific beliefs and developmental phases.
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Definition
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Term
| ____________ based their theory on the organizing concept of “individual life structure.” |
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Definition
| Daniel Levinson and Associates |
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Term
| Daniel Levinson and Associates' theory centered around the belief that the pattern of life at any point in time is formed by the interaction of what components? |
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Definition
1. The self (values, motives) 2. The social and cultural aspects of one’s life (family, career, religion, ethnic background) 3. The particular set of roles in which one participates (husband, father,friend, student) |
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Term
| According to Levinson and associates, what are the major phases in young and middle adult life? |
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Definition
•Early adult transition (18-22) •Entering the adult world (22-28) •Settling down (30-40) •Midlife transition (40-45) •Pay-off years (45-65) |
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|
Term
________________ developed a theory of moral development. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What are Lawrence Kohlberg's levels of moral development? |
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Definition
Preconventional Level Conventional Level Postconventional Level |
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Term
| In Kohlberg's moral development model, the __________ level is based on external control as the child learns to conform to rules imposed by authority figures. |
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Definition
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Term
| In Kohlberg's moral development model, what are the stages in the Preconventional Level? |
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Definition
1. Stage 1 - punishment and obedience orientation (the motivation for choices of action is fear of physical consequences of authority’s disapproval). 2. Stage 2 - instrumental relativist orientation (the thought of receiving areward overcomes fear of punishment, so actions that satisfythis desire are selected). |
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Term
| In Kohlberg's moral development model, this level involves identifying with significant others and conforming to their expectations. |
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Definition
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Term
| In Kohlberg's moral development model, what are the stages in the conventional level? |
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Definition
1. Stage 3 - “good boy–good girl” orientation (the person strives for approval in an attempt to be viewed as “good.”) 2. Stage 4 - “law and order” orientation (behavior follows social or religious rules from a respect for authority). |
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Term
| In Kohlberg's moral development model, what level involves moral judgment that is rational and internalized into one’s standards or values? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| In Kohlberg's moral development model, what are the stages in the postconventional level? |
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Definition
1. Stage 5 - social contract and utilitarian orientation (correct behavior is defined in terms of society’s laws). 2. Stage 6 - universal ethical principle orientation (represents the person’s concern for equality for all human beings, guided by personal values and standards, regardless of those set by society or laws). |
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Term
| __________ theory of development views females as developing a morality of response and care, and males as developing a morality of justice. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What are Carol Gilligan's developmental levels? |
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Definition
Level 1—Selfishness Level 2—Goodness Level 3—Nonviolence |
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Term
| In what level of Carol Gilligan's theory is moral judgment is based on shared norms and expectations, and societal values are adopted. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| In what level of Carol Gilligan's theory does a changed understanding of self and a redefinition of morality allow reconciliation of selfishness and responsibility. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| ___________ postulated a developmental theory of the spiritual identity of humans. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the stages in James Fowler's Theory of Faith Development? |
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Definition
Stage 1 — Intuitive–Projective Faith Stage 2 — Mythical–Literal Faith Stage 3 — Synthetic–Conventional Faith Stage 4 — Individuative–Reflective Faith Stage 5 — Conjunctive Faith Stage 6 — Universalizing Faith |
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Term
| In James Fowler's Theory of Faith Development, in what stage do children imitate religious gestures and behaviorsof others, primarily their parents? |
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Definition
| Stage 1 — Intuitive–Projective Faith |
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Term
In James Fowler's Theory of Faith Development, in what stage does the child accept the existence of a deity? |
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Definition
| Stage 2 — Mythical–Literal Faith |
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Term
| In James Fowler's Theory of Faith Development, in what stage does the person begins to question life-guiding values or religious practices in an attempt to stabilize his or her own identity. |
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Definition
| Stage 3 — Synthetic–Conventional Faith |
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Term
| In James Fowler's Theory of Faith Development, what stage is crucial for older adolescents and young adults because they become responsible for their own commitments, beliefs, and attitudes? |
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Definition
| Stage 4 — Individuative–Reflective Faith |
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|
Term
| In James Fowler's Theory of Faith Development, what stage integrates other viewpoints about faith into one’s understanding of truth. |
|
Definition
| Stage 5 — Conjunctive Faith |
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|
Term
| In James Fowler's Theory of Faith Development, what stage involves making tangible the values of absolute love and justice for humankind? |
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Definition
| Stage 6 — Universalizing Faith |
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|
Term
| What are the growth and development stages of the fetus? |
|
Definition
Preembryonic Stage (conception-3 weeks) Embryonic Stage (4-8 weeks) Fetal Stage (9 weeks-birth) |
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Term
| What are the germ layers? |
|
Definition
1. The endoderm (inner layer) becomes the respiratory system, the digestive system, the liver, and the pancreas. 2. The mesoderm (middle layer) becomes the skeleton, connective tissue, cartilage, muscles, and the circulatory, lymphoid, reproductive, and urinary systems. 3. The ectoderm (outer layer)becomes the brain, spinal cord, nervous system, and outer body parts (skin, hair, and nails).
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Term
| By the end of this stage, all basic organs have been established, the bones have begun to ossify, and some human features are recognizable. |
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Definition
| Embryonic Stage (4-8 weeks) |
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Term
| Because this is a period of such rapid growth and change, the fetus is especially vulnerable to any factor that might cause congenital anomalies n this stage (such as maternal use of alcohol, nicotine, over-the-counter medications, or drugs). |
|
Definition
| Embryonic Stage (4-8 weeks) |
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Term
| In this stage of prenatal development all body organs and systems continue to grow and develop. |
|
Definition
| Fetal Stage (9 weeks to birth) |
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Term
| ___________ can result in fetal megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| ____________ can result in inadequate fetal bone calcification. |
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Definition
| Vitamin D and calcium deficits |
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|
Term
| __________ can result in fetal hypothyroidism. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| A developmental stage from birth to 28 days. |
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Definition
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Term
| The neonate is assessed immediately after birth using what? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What reflexes are a physical characteristic of neonates? |
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Definition
Moro reflex the stepping reflex grasp reflex hand-to-mouth activity sucking swallowing blinking sneezing yawning |
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Term
| A developmental stage from 1 month to 1 year. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What are the physical characteristics of the infant? |
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Definition
•Brain grows to about half the adult size. •Body temperature stabilizes. •Motor abilities develop, allowing using building blocks,attempting to feed self, crawling, and walking. •Eyes begin to focus and fixate. •Heart doubles in weight, heart rate slows, and blood pres-sure rises. •Deciduous teeth begin to erupt at 4 to 6 months. •Birthweight usually triples by 1 year, when the averagemale infant weighs 22 lb (10 kg) and the average femaleinfant weighs 21 lb (9.5 kg). Length increases by 50% |
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Term
| An active, affectionate, reciprocal relationship between two people. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Occurs during a sensitive period in the first few hours after birth and is necessary for later attachment. Might be considered the emotional linkage of two people. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The two dimensions of play are _________ and ______________. |
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Definition
Social play Cognitive play |
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Term
| ________ is primarily inborn, although it is influenced by environment. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| ___________ is uncontrollable, extended crying in an otherwise healthy and well-fed baby. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| _____________ is a condition of inadequate growth in height and weight resulting from the infant’s inability to obtain or use calories needed for growth. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Infants with FTT have signs of ____________ and _____________. |
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Definition
malnutrition delayed development |
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Term
| ____________ is the sudden death of an infant under the age of 1 year, unexpected in light of the infant’s history. |
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Definition
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) |
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|
Term
| A developmental stage from 1 to 3 years. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| A developmental stage from 3 to 6 years. |
|
Definition
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Term
| The physical characteristics of the preschooler include what? |
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Definition
•Head is close to adult size by 6 years of age. •The body is less chubby and becomes leaner and more coordinated. •Motor abilities include skipping, throwing and catching a ball, copying figures, and printing letters and numbers. •Full set of 20 deciduous teeth is present; baby teeth begin to fall out and are replaced by permanent teeth. •Average weight at 5 to 6 years of age is 45 lb (20.4 kg), with boys being slightly heavier than girls. |
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Term
| Growth and developmental highlights of the toddler include what? |
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Definition
•Has rapid brain growth; increase in length of long bones of the arms and legs; growth of muscles •Uses fingers to pick up small objects •Walks forward and backward, runs, kicks, climbs stairs, and rides a tricycle •Drinks from a cup and uses a spoon •At 2 years of age, the toddler is typically four times the birth-weight, averaging 30 to 35 lb (13.6 to 15.9 kg) and 23 to37 inches (58.4 to 94 cm) in height.•Has bladder control during the day and sometimes during the night (2.5–3 years of age) •Turns pages in a book, and by 3 years of age, draws stick people
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Term
| A developmental stage from 6 to 12 years. |
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Definition
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Term
| Physiologic development of school-aged children includes what characteristics? |
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Definition
•The brain reaches 90% to 95% of adult size; by 12 years of age, the nervous system is almost completely matured, resulting in coordinated body movements. •Motor abilities progress from the ability to hold a pencil and print words at 6 years of age to the ability to write in script and in sentences at 12 years of age. •Sexual organs grow but are dormant until late in this period, when hormonal changes begin. •All permanent teeth are present, except for the second and third molars, by 12 years of age. •Height increases 2 to 3 inches (5.1 to 7.6 cm) and weight increases 3 to 6 lb (1.4 to 2.7 kg) a year. |
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Term
| Cognitive development of school-aged children includes what characteristics? |
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Definition
•Thinks logically and develops concepts of mass, volume,weight, and measurement •Deals best with actual objects and people, but can relate concepts and compare events •Uses inductive reasoning to solve new problems •Generalizes about people, places, and things •Develops classification systems •Develops an awareness and understanding of other people’s feelings and points of view •Understands reversal of events |
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Term
| Cognitive development of the preschooler includes what characteristics? |
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Definition
•Egocentrism decreases as socialization with other children increases, and the ability to express self verbally improves. •Play is more related to real-life events (rather than fantasy). •Basic curiosity results in constant questions and improved reasoning ability |
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Term
___________ is diagnosed when a child is at least 5 years of age and is still having involuntary urination, usually at night.
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Definition
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|
Term
| ___________ begins with puberty and extends from 12 to 20 years of age; the ____________ period is considered to be the 20s and 30s. |
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Definition
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Term
| Physiologic development of adolescents include what characteristics? |
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Definition
•The feet, hands, and long bones grow rapidly, accompanied by an increase in muscle mass (especially in boys). •Primary and secondary sexual development occurs, with maturation of the genitalia; presence of body hair; breast development and menstruation in girls; facial hair growth,voice changes, and spermatogenesis in boys. •Puberty (the time when the ability to reproduce begins)begins at 9 to 13 years of age in girls (with menstruation usually beginning between 10 and 14 years of age) and at 11 or 14 years of age in boys. •Sebaceous and axillary sweat glands become active. •Full adult size is reached, although some young men might continue to grow in their 20s |
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Term
| Puberty can be divided into what stages? |
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Definition
•Prepubescence: Secondary sex characteristics begin to develop, but the reproductive organs do not yet function. •Pubescence: Secondary sex characteristics continue to develop, and ova and sperm begin to be produced by their productive organs. •Postpubescence: Reproductive functioning and the development of secondary sex characteristics reach adult maturity. |
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Term
| Often, ___________ or __________ temporarily abandon traditional religious practices. |
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Definition
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Term
| _____________ are the leading cause of death for adolescents and young adults. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| _________ is the third leading cause of death of adolescents and young adults. |
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Definition
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Term
| ______________ are the second leading cause of injury and death in adolescents. |
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Definition
| Firearm-related homicides |
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Term
| A gradual process, characterized by continued development and maturation. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Theory of aging stating that life span depends to a great extent on genetic factors. |
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Definition
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Term
| Theory of aging stating that the immune response declines steadily after younger adulthood as the thymus loses size and function. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| A chemical reaction that produces damage to the DNA and cell death. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| A theory of aging that states As one ages, cross-links accumulate, leading to essential molecules in the cell binding together and interfering with normal cell function. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Molecules with separated high-energy electrons, which can have adverse effects on adjacent molecules. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Theory of aging that states lipids, found in cell membranes, as well as proteins and cell organelles, are affected. Over time, irreversible damage results from the accumulated effects of this damage |
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Definition
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Term
| Generally considered to be ages 40 to 65. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Gradual decrease in ovarian function, with subsequent depletion of estrogen and progesterone. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The loss of estrogen also increases the risk for __________ and __________. |
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Definition
osteoporosis heart disease |
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Term
| Androgen levels diminish slowly; the man may have some loss of sexual potency but is still capable of reproduction. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What are the physical changes in the middle adult? |
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Definition
•Fatty tissue is redistributed; men tend to develop abdominal fat, women thicken through the middle. •The skin is drier. •Wrinkle lines appear on the face. •Gray hair appears, and men may lose hair on the head. •Cardiac output begins to decrease. •Muscle mass, strength, and agility gradually decrease. •There is a loss of calcium from bones, especially in perimenopausal women. •Fatigue increases. •Visual acuity diminishes, especially for near vision(presbyopia). •Hearing acuity diminishes, especially for high-pitched sounds. •Hormone production decreases, resulting in menopause or andropause |
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Term
| What are the leading causes of death in the middle adult years? |
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Definition
motor vehicle crashes occupational accidents suicide chronic diseases |
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Term
| One older than 65 years of age. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The older adult period is often further divided into what categories? |
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Definition
The young-old (ages 60 to 74 years) The middle-old (ages 75 to 84 years) The old-old (ages 85 years and older) |
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Term
| Older women outnumber older men by a ratio of ______. |
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Definition
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Term
| Maintained that older adults often withdraw from usual roles and become more introspective and self-focused. |
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Definition
| Disengagement Theory (now thought of as incorrect) |
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Term
| Theory stating that successful aging involves the ability to maintain high levels of activity and functioning. |
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Definition
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Term
| Theory that assumes that healthy aging is related to the older adult’s ability to continue similar patterns of behavior from young and middle adulthood. |
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Definition
Identity-continuity Theory
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Term
| A way for an older adult to relive and restructure life experiences and is part of achieving ego integrity. |
|
Definition
| Life Review (Reminiscence) |
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|
Term
| Refers to various organic disorders that progressively affect cognitive functioning. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Of the dementias that affect older adults, _____________ is the most common degenerative neurologic illness and the most common cause of cognitive impairment. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| An older adult habitually becomes confused, restless, and agitated after dark. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| A temporary state of confusion that is an acute illness which can last from hours to weeks and resolves with treatment. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Interventions to redirect the patient’s attention to what is real in the environment. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| The rate of suicide in older adults is highest in ____________. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Elder abuse most commonly occurs in ______ who are older than ____ years of age. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Neglect accounts for _______% of all elder mistreatment reports made to adult protective service agencies. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The scientific and behavioral study of all aspects of aging and its consequences. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ability to carry out usual and desired daily activities. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Combines the basic knowledge and skills of nursing with a specialized knowledge of aging in both illness and health. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is included in vital signs? |
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Definition
Temperature Pulse Respiration Blood pressure Oxygen Saturation Pain |
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Term
| Vital signs are assessed at least every 4 hours in hospitalized patients with what conditions? |
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Definition
1. High or low blood pressures 2. with changes in pulse rate or rhythm 3. with respiratory difficulty 4. patients who are taking medications that affect cardiovascular or respiratory function 5. patients who have had surgery |
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Term
| If a patient has abnormal or unusual physical symptoms (eg, chest pain or dizziness) or has unexpected changes in vital signs, the nurse should do what? |
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Definition
| double-check the findings and further assess the patient. |
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|
Term
| Nurses take vital signs as often as _______________. |
|
Definition
| a patient’s condition requires such assessment. |
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|
Term
| Core body temperature is normally maintained within a range of _____________. |
|
Definition
| 36.0°C (97.0°F) to 37.5°C (99.5°F) |
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|
Term
| core body temperatures are the lowest in the _________ and highest in the ___________. |
|
Definition
early morning late afternoon |
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|
Term
| Core temperatures are measured at _____________ sites. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The thermoregulatory center is located in the __________. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Epinephrine and norepinephrine ____________ (increase/decrease) body temperature. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thyroid hormone __________ (increases/decreases) metabolism and heat production. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| ____________ reduces the size of the skin surface to minimize heat loss. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Small connections between the arterioles and the venules that lie directly below the skin surface. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The _______________ controls the opening and closing of the arteriovenous shunts in response to changes in core body temperature and in environmental temperature. |
|
Definition
| sympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
| What are the factors that affect body temperature. |
|
Definition
circadian rhythms age gender stress environmental temperatures |
|
|
Term
| A person with a normal body temperature is referred to as ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An increase above normal (considered to be 37°C or 98.6°F) in body temperature in response to trauma or illness. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A person with a fever is said to be ________.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The diffusion or dissemination of heat by electromagnetic waves (Ex. the body gives off waves of heat from uncovered surfaces).
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The dissemination of heat by motion between areas of unequal density (ex. an oscillating fan blowscurrents of cool air acrossthe surface of a warm body).
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The conversion of a liquid to a vapor (ex. body fluid in the form of perspiration and insensible loss is vaporized from the skin). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The transfer of heat to another object during direct contact (ex. the body transfers heat to an ice pack, causing the ice to melt). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the thermal set point is increased, the hypothalamus initiates _______________. |
|
Definition
| shivering and vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| Hyperthermia differs from fever in that _________________________. |
|
Definition
| the hypothalamic setpoint is not changed |
|
|
Term
| Neurogenic fever is usually the result of damage to the hypothalamus from ____________________. |
|
Definition
| intracranial trauma, intracranial bleeding, or increased intracranial pressure |
|
|
Term
| Hyperpyrexia is a high fever, usually above ______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pyrexia is a fever usually between ______________. |
|
Definition
| 38°C (100.4°F) - 40°C (104.0°F) |
|
|
Term
| Hypothermia is usually at or below ______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A normal temperature is usually between ______________. |
|
Definition
| 36°C (97.0°F) - 37°C (98.6°F) |
|
|
Term
| Aspirin also should not be given to children and teenagers with _____________ because of a possible association with Reye’s syndrome. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The body temperature alternates regularly between a period of fever and a period of normal or subnormal temperature. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The body temperature fluctuates several degrees more than 2°C (3.6°F) above normal but does not reach normal between fluctuations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The body temperature remains consistently elevated and fluctuates less than 2°C (3.6°F). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The body temperature returns to normal for at least a day, but then the fever recurs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The fever returns to normal suddenly. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The fever returns to normal gradually. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Death may occur when the temperature falls below about __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Non-mercury thermometers may be either ___________ or ___________. |
|
Definition
spirit-filled alcohol-based |
|
|
Term
| Most commonly, a _________ is found on glass thermometers used to take oral temperatures, and a __________ is found on glass thermometers used to take rectal temperatures. |
|
Definition
long, thin bulb blunt bulb |
|
|
Term
| Low white blood cell counts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ results as a wave of blood is pumped into the arterial circulation by the contraction of the left ventricle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Characteristics of the pulse, include ____________________________. |
|
Definition
rate quality rhythm stroke volume |
|
|
Term
| What is the pulse regulated by? |
|
Definition
| autonomic nervous system through the cardiac sinoatrial (SA) node |
|
|
Term
| ____________ stimulation of the SA node via the vagus nerve decreases the heart rate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____________ stimulation of the SA node increases the heart rate and force of contraction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A rapid rate (tachycardia) ________ (increases/decreases) cardiac filling time, which, in turn, ________________________. |
|
Definition
decreases decreases stroke volume and cardiac output |
|
|
Term
| An adult has tachycardia when the pulse rate is ________ beats/min. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A pulse rate below 60 beats/min in an adult. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describes the quality of the pulse in terms of its fullness and reflects the strength of left ventricular contraction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pattern of the pulsations and the pauses between them. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An irregular pattern of heartbeats. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the pulse amplitude categories? |
|
Definition
0 Absent pulse - no pulsation is felt despite extreme pressure. 1+Thready pulse - Pulsation is not easily felt, and slight pressure causes it to disappear. 2+Weak pulse - Stronger than a thready pulse; light pressure causes it to disappear. 3+Normal pulse - Pulsation is easily felt,takes moderate pressure to cause it to disappear. 4+Bounding pulse - The pulsation is strong and does not disappear with moderate pressure. |
|
|
Term
| The diaphragm is more useful for hearing __________ sounds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The bell is more useful for hearing _________ sounds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This device has an ear-piece connected to an audio unit with an ultrasound transducer. |
|
Definition
| Doppler Ultrasound Stethoscope |
|
|
Term
| What are the pulse sites? |
|
Definition
Temporal Carotid Brachial Radial Femoral Popliteal Dorsalis pedis Posterior tibial
|
|
|
Term
| The ________ pulse site is used for infants who have had a cardiac arrest |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _______ pulse is assessed when giving medications that alter heart rate and rhythm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A difference between the apical and radial pulse rates is called the ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Movement of air in and out of the lungs. |
|
Definition
| Pulmonary ventilation (or breathing) |
|
|
Term
| ______________ is the act of breathing in. |
|
Definition
| Inspiration (or inhalation) |
|
|
Term
| ______________ is the act of breathing out. |
|
Definition
| Expiration (or exhalation) |
|
|
Term
| Respirations are controlled by ______________. |
|
Definition
| respiratory centers in the medulla and pons |
|
|
Term
| The respiratory centers in the medulla and pons are activated by what? |
|
Definition
1. chemoreceptors located in the aortic arch and carotid arteries 2. stretch and irritantreceptors in the lungs 3. receptors in muscles and joints |
|
|
Term
| An _________________ is the most powerful respiratory stimulant. |
|
Definition
| increase in carbon dioxide |
|
|
Term
| Normal respiration is called ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An increased respiratory rate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a decrease in respiratory rate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A/An _________ (increase/decrease) in intracranial pressure depresses the respiratory center, resulting in irregular or shallow breathing, slow breathing, or both. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Certain drugs, such as __________________, depress the respiratory rate. |
|
Definition
| narcotics (eg, morphine, meperidine [Demerol]) |
|
|
Term
| ________ refers to periods during which there is no breathing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ is difficult or labored breathing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dyspneic people can often breathe more easily in an upright position, a condition known as __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________ refers to the force of the blood against arterial walls. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure is called the _______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ______________________ system controls vasoconstriction to increase peripheral vascular resistance and also increases sodium and water retention by the kidneys to increase circulatory fluid volume and thus increase blood pressure. |
|
Definition
| renin-angiotensin-aldosterone |
|
|
Term
| ___________ is released from the posterior pituitary when stimulated by decreased blood volume and blood pressure, or by an increased osmolarity of the blood. |
|
Definition
| Antidiuretic hormone (ADH, vasopressin) |
|
|
Term
| The quantity of blood forced out of the left ventricle with each contraction is called the ______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ______________ is the amount of blood pumped per minute. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cardiac output (CO) averages from ______________ in a healthy adult. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cardiac Output = ___________.
|
|
Definition
| Stroke Volume × Heart Rate |
|
|
Term
| A rise or fall of ___________ mm Hg in a person’s blood pressure is significant, even if it is within the generally accepted normal range. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| It is one of the most common health problems in adults and the leading cause of cardiovascular disorders. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________ hypertension is hypertension without a known cause. |
|
Definition
| Primary (also called essential) |
|
|
Term
| When the hypertension is caused by a known pathology, it is called _________ hypertension. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Overactivation of both angiotensin and aldosterone result in an _________ (increase/decrease) in blood pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The categories of antihypertensive medications include ____________ (to decrease fluid volume), ______________ (to block sympathetic stimulation anddecrease cardiac output), _______________ (to relax smooth muscles of arterioles and decrease peripheral vascular resistance), and ____________ (to prevent vasoconstriction by angiotensin II and decrease circulatory fluid volume by reducing aldosterone production). |
|
Definition
diuretics beta-adrenergic blockers vasodilators and calcium channelblockers ACE inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| ___________ is below-normal blood pressure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____________ is a low blood pressure associated with weakness or fainting when one rises to an erect position (either supine to sitting, supine to standing, or sitting to standing). |
|
Definition
Orthostatic hypotension (postural hypotension) |
|
|
Term
| It is the result of peripheral vasodilation without a compensatory rise in cardiac output. |
|
Definition
Orthostatic hypotension (postural hypotension) |
|
|
Term
| The series of sounds for which the nurse listens when assessing the blood pressure are called ______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The disappearance of the sound during the latter part of phase I and during phase II is called the ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The width of the BP cuff should be about ___% of the circumference of the limb to be used. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The systolic pressure is normally 10 to 40 mm Hg higher at this site, although the diastolic pressure is the same. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______________ involves collecting, validating,and analyzing data about the patient’s health. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A ___________________ with a health history and complete physical examination is usually conducted when a patient first enters a healthcare setting, with information providing a baseline for comparing later assessment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An ______________________ is one that is conducted at regular intervals (eg, at the beginning of each home health visit or each hospital shift) during care of the patient. |
|
Definition
| ongoing partial assessment |
|
|
Term
| This type of assessment concentrates on identified health problems to monitor positive or negative changes and evaluate the effectiveness of interventions. |
|
Definition
| ongoing partial assessment |
|
|
Term
| A _________________ is conducted to assess a specific problem. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An ___________________ is a type of rapid focused assessment conducted to determine potentially fatalsituations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A ______________ is a collection of subjective data that provides a detailed profile of the patient’s health status. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the components of a health history? |
|
Definition
Biographical Data Reason for Seeking Health Care History of Present Health Concern Medical History Family History Lifestyle |
|
|
Term
| A _____________ is the systematic collection of objective information. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An _______________ is a lighted instrument used to visualize the interior structures of the eye. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An __________ is a lighted instrument used to examine the external ear canal and the tympanic membrane |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____________, used as a screening test for distant vision,consists of characters in 11 lines of different-sized type; the line of largest characters is at the top of the chart and the line of smallest characters is at the bottom. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A ____________ is used to visualize the lower and middle turbinates of the nose. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A ____________ is a two-bladed instrument used to examine the vaginal canal and cervix. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _________ is the process of performing deliberate, purposeful observations in a systematic manner. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____________ surfaces of the hand and fingers are used for gross measure of temperature. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____________ surfaces of the fingers and finger pads are used to assess texture, shape, fluid, size, consistency, and pulsation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vibration is palpated best with the _______ of the hand. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For light palpation, apply light pressure with the fingers together depressing the skin and underlying structures less than ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Moderate palpation is conducted by depressing the skin surface ______________. |
|
Definition
| 1 to 2 cm (0.5″ to 0.75″) |
|
|
Term
| For deep palpation, press inward about __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Applying _______________ to a specific area allows assessment of surface characteristics and underlying structures. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is assessed in general survey? |
|
Definition
• Observe general appearance, hygiene, posture, gait, thought processes, speech patterns. • Evaluate height and weight. • Take vital signs. |
|
|
Term
| What is assessed in integument? |
|
Definition
• Skin: Inspect for color and lesions; palpate for temperature, texture, and moisture. • Hair: Inspect for texture, loss, unusual growth, and infestations. • Nails: Inspect for color and condition |
|
|
Term
| What is assessed in head & neck? |
|
Definition
• Skull and face: Inspect for shape and symmetry. • Neck: Palpate trachea and thyroid gland. • Lymph nodes: Palpate for size, shape, consistency, and tenderness. • Eyes: Test visual acuity, extraocular movements, and peripheral vision; inspect for discharge, alignment, and internal structures. • Ears: Test hearing acuity; inspect position, external ear, tympanic membrane, and for cerumen. • Nose, mouth, throat: Inspect for color, consistency, condition of teeth, exudate, condition of tonsils; palpate for tenderness |
|
|
Term
| What is assessed in thorax and lungs? |
|
Definition
• Thorax: Inspect posture and respiratory rate; palpate for crepitus and expansion; percuss for tones; auscultate breath sounds. • Breasts: Inspect size, shape, symmetry, color, areolas, nipple (discharge), retraction, dimpling; palpate for masses or tenderness. • Axillary lymph nodes: Palpate for size, shape, consistency, and tenderness. |
|
|
Term
| What is assessed in cardiovascular? |
|
Definition
• Carotid arteries: Auscultate for bruit; palpate pulse strength. • Jugular vein: Inspect for pulsations and distention. • Precordium: Inspect for pulsations; palpate apical impulse, and heart rate and rhythm; auscultate heart sounds and murmurs. |
|
|
Term
| What is assessed in peripheral vascular? |
|
Definition
• Peripheral pulses: Palpate for symmetry, character, strength, rate, patency. • Arms and legs: Inspect for color, hair pattern, veins, lesions, and edema; palpate for temperature. |
|
|
Term
| What is assessed in abdomen? |
|
Definition
• Abdomen: Inspect for size, shape, contour, lesions, distention,and hernia; percuss for tones; palpate for tenderness. • Bowel sounds: Auscultate for intensity, frequency, and pitch. • Liver: Percuss and palpate for location and consistency/size; palpate for tenderness. • Aorta: bruits, pulsation |
|
|
Term
| What is assessed in male genitalia? |
|
Definition
• Penis: Inspect for inflammation, infestations, rashes, lesions,masses, and discharge. Palpate for masses. • Scrotum and testes: Inspect for inflammation, edema, and lesions; palpate for masses |
|
|
Term
| What is assessed in female genitalia? |
|
Definition
• External genitalia: Inspect for inflammation, infestations, rashes,lesions, masses, discharge (color, odor, amount), swelling, and bulging out of vagina. • Uterus: Palpate for size, position, shape, and consistency. • Ovaries: Palpate for size, shape, mobility, and tenderness. |
|
|
Term
| ___________ is used to assess the location, shape, size, and density of tissues. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four characteristics of sound that are assessed by auscultation? |
|
Definition
(1) pitch (ranging from high to low) (2) loudness (ranging from soft to loud) (3) quality (eg, gurgling or swishing) (4) duration (short, medium, or long) |
|
|
Term
| What part of assessment includes observing the patient’s overall appearance and behavior, taking vital signs, and measuring height and weight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Position used to assess the hip joint and the posterior thorax. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ________ position should not be used for abdominal assessment because it causes contraction of the abdominal muscles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is assessed in the anus, rectum, prostate? |
|
Definition
• Anus: Inspect and palpate for hemorrhoids, lumps, ulcers, fissures. • Stool: Inspect for color; test for occult blood. • Prostate: Palpate for size, shape, consistency, and tenderness. |
|
|
Term
| What is assessed in musculoskeletal? |
|
Definition
• Gait: Inspect gait and posture. • Joints and muscles: Inspect for size, symmetry, color, and edema;palpate for nodules, crepitus, and strength. • Joints: Test range of motion |
|
|
Term
| What is assessed in neurologic? |
|
Definition
• Mental status: Assess level of awareness; level of consciousness;dress, grooming, hygiene; speech; thought processes; and memory and abstract reasoning. • Cranial nerves: Test ability to smell, see, clench teeth, move eyes,have facial expressions, hear, taste, feel touch, swallow, shrug shoulders against resistance, and protrude tongue. • Fine motor movement: Test ability to repeatedly touch nose with hand, pat knees with palms and backs of hands, and run heel down opposite shin. • Sensory: Test ability to distinguish between sharp and dull touch. • Reflexes: Assess degree of response. |
|
|
Term
| Children to 2 years of age should have their height measured in the _____________________________. |
|
Definition
| recumbent position with the legs fully extended |
|
|
Term
| Infants should be weighed ____________, and children should be weighed ___________. |
|
Definition
without any clothing in their underwear |
|
|
Term
| The ______ is a general indicator of the patient’s health status and provides information that might indicate an underlying disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Changes in skin color include ___________________. |
|
Definition
erythema cyanosis jaundice pallor |
|
|
Term
| __________(redness of the skin) is more often seen in the face and the neck. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________ is a bluish or grayish discoloration of the skin in response to inadequate oxygenation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cyanosis is assessed as a _______ in patients with white skin and as _________ in patients with dark skin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _________ is a yellow color of the skin resulting from liver and gallbladder disease, some types of anemia, and hemolysis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Jaundice usually develops first in the _________ and then in _______ and lastly in the ____________. |
|
Definition
sclera of the eyes the skin mucous membranes |
|
|
Term
| _________, or paleness of the skin, often results from an inadequate amount of circulating blood or hemoglobin, causing inadequate oxygenation of the body tissues. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pallor in dark-skinned people is seen as an ____________________. |
|
Definition
| ashen gray or yellow ting |
|
|
Term
| ___________ is a collection of blood in the subcutaneous tissues, causing purplish discoloration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _________ are small hemorrhagic spots caused by capillary bleeding. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Areas of diseased or injured tissue. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lesions are categorized as ________, which may arise from previously normal skin, and _________, which result from changes in original lesions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| breaks in the continuity of the skin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Assess wounds (breaks in the continuity of the skin) for _____________________. |
|
Definition
size shape depth location presence of drainage or odor |
|
|
Term
| Assess rashes for ________________. |
|
Definition
type size elevation coloring presence of drainage or itching |
|
|
Term
| An excessive amount of perspiration, such as when the entire skin is moist, is called ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________ is the fullness or elasticity of the skin and is usually assessed on the sternum or under the clavicle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Difficulty in lifting a skin fold may indicate _________________. |
|
Definition
| edema (excess fluid in the tissues) |
|
|
Term
| Edema is characterized by _________________. |
|
Definition
| swelling, with taut and shiny skin over the edematous area |
|
|
Term
| If the area of edema is palpated with the fingers, an indentation may remain after the pressure is released; this is called ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Edema may be graded as what? |
|
Definition
0 (none) +1 (trace, 2 mm) +2 (moderate, 4 mm) +3 (deep, 6 mm) +4 (very deep, 8 mm) |
|
|
Term
| The nails are inspected for ________________. |
|
Definition
| shape, angle, texture, and color. |
|
|
Term
| The angle between the nail and its base in the finger should be about _____ degrees. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Indentations in the nail. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Painless separation of the nail plate from the nailbed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Assess the hair for _________________. |
|
Definition
| color, texture, and distribution |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| excessive amounts of hair on the face and body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inspect the scalp for ______________. |
|
Definition
| color, dryness,scaliness, lumps, lesions, or lice. |
|
|
Term
| What are the common skin variations in newborns and children? |
|
Definition
•Jaundice and milia (whiteheads) in newborns •Fine downy hair (lanugo) for the first 2 weeks of life •Smooth, thin skin at birth •Pubic hair development at the onset of puberty |
|
|
Term
| What are the common skin variations in the older adults? |
|
Definition
•Wrinkles, dryness, scaling, decreased turgor •Raised dark areas (senile keratosis) •Flat brown age spots (senile lentigines) •Small round red spots (cherry angioma) •Fine, brittle gray or white hair •Hair loss •Coarse facial hair in women, decreased body hair in men and women •Thick, yellow toenails |
|
|
Term
| Circumscribed, flat, nonpalpable change in skin color ≤ 1 cm. |
|
Definition
| Macule (Ex. Petechiae, freckle) |
|
|
Term
| Circumscribed, flat, nonpalpable change in skin color > 1 cm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Palpable, elevated solid mass ≤ 0.5 cm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Palpable, elevated solid mass > 0.5 cm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Palpable, elevated solid mass 0.5 - 2cm firmer than a papule. |
|
Definition
| Nodule (Ex. Nevus [wart]) |
|
|
Term
| Palpable, elevated solid mass > 2 cm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Palpable, elevated solid mass that is irregular, superficial area of localized sin edema. |
|
Definition
| Wheal (Ex. Hives, mosquito bite |
|
|
Term
Circumscribed, superficial skin elevation filled with serous fluid, ≤ 0.5 cm. |
|
Definition
| Vesicle (Ex. Herpes simplex) |
|
|
Term
Circumscribed, superficial skin elevation filled with serous fluid, > 0.5 cm. |
|
Definition
| Bulla (Ex. 2nd-degree burn) |
|
|
Term
| Circumscribed, superficial skin elevation filled pus. |
|
Definition
| Pustule (Ex. acne, impetigo) |
|
|
Term
| Loss of superficial epidermis, moist, nonbleeding surface. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Loss of epidermis and dermis, may bleed and scar |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Deep linear crack, extends into dermis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dried residue of serum, pus, or blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dried residue of serum, pus, or blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thin flake of exfoliated dermis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thickened and roughened epidermis, with increased visibility of skin furrows |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thinning of the skin, loss of skin furrows, shiny appearance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fibrous tissue replaces tissue in the dermis or subcutaneous layer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Plugged opening of a sebaceous gland, a hallmark of acne |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Small, dilated, red or bluish surface vessels; may be part of a basal cell carcinoma or skin injury from radiation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inspect and palpate the skull for ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Edema of the face, especially around the eye. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inspect the face for ___________. |
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Definition
| color, symmetry, and distribution of facial hair |
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Term
| Assessments of the eye include _______________. |
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Definition
| external and internal eye structures, visual acuity, extraocular movements, and peripheral vision |
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Term
| Inspect the eyes, eyebrows, eyelids, eyelashes, lacrimal glands, pupils, and iris for _______________. |
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Definition
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Term
| drooping of the upper lids. |
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Definition
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Term
| Inward turning of the lower lid. |
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Definition
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Term
| outward turning of the lower lid. |
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Definition
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Term
| Inspect and palpate the lacrimal glands for ____________. |
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Definition
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Term
| A dilation of the pupil due to disease, trauma or the use of drugs. |
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Definition
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Term
| Constriction of the pupil of the eye, resulting from a normal response to an increase in light or caused by certain drugs or pathological conditions. |
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Definition
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Term
| The ____________ in visual acuity represents the distance from which a person with normal vision (recorded as 20/20) can read the letters. |
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Definition
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Term
| The larger the __________ in visual acuity, the poorer the vision. |
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Definition
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Term
| Visual acuity is recorded as the smallest line of letters that can be read accurately with no more than ____ inaccurate readings. |
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Definition
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Term
| Inspect the external ear for ______________. |
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Definition
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Term
| Palpate the external ear gently for ___________________. |
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Definition
| pain, edema, or presence of lesions |
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Term
| Pain when manipulating the pinna is a symptom of __________________. |
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Definition
| an infection of the external ear |
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Term
| The tympanic membrane should be _________________. |
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Definition
| intact, translucent, shiny, and gray |
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Term
| The result of a problem with the transmission of sound waves through the outer and middle ear. |
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Definition
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Term
| Hearing loss from inner ear damage. |
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Definition
| Sensorineural hearing loss |
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Term
| Normally, in the _________, the sound is heard in both ears or is localized at the center of the head. |
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Definition
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Term
| In the Weber's test, patients with ________ hearing loss hear the sound better in the affected ear, whereas if the sound is heard better in the ear without a problem, it indicates ____________. |
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Definition
conductive sensorineural hearing loss |
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Term
| Normally, in the Rinne test, air-conducted hearing is _________ (<,>) than bone-conducted hearing. |
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Definition
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Term
| If the hearing loss is conductive, bone conduction will be ____________ air conduction. |
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Definition
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Term
| Assess the nose by examining the _________________. |
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Definition
| external nose, the nares, and the turbinates |
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Term
| Test the nose for _________ by occluding one nostril at a time and asking the patient to inhale and exhale through the nose. |
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Definition
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Term
| Examine the mucous membranes of the nose for ______________________. |
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Definition
| color and the presence of lesions, exudate, or growths |
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Term
| Inspect the nasal septum for _________________. |
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Definition
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Term
| Palpate the frontal and maxillary sinuses for _____________. |
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Definition
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Term
| Assess the mouth and pharynx by inspecting the ______________________. |
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Definition
| lips, gums and teeth, tongue, and hard and soft palates |
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Term
| Assess the neck for _______________. |
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Definition
| range of motion and venous distention |
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Term
| The trachea, normally midline at the suprasternal notch, is palpated for _______________. |
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Definition
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Term
| Palpate the lymph nodes with the pads of thefingers for _______________. |
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Definition
| enlargement, tenderness, and mobility |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| Palpate the thyroid gland for _____________________. |
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Definition
| size, shape, symmetry, tenderness, and presence of any nodules |
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Term
| What are the common head and neck variations in newborns and children? |
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Definition
•Closing of posterior fontanel at 8 weeks of age; soft anterior fontanel at about 18 months of age •Gazing at and following bright objects by 1 month of age •Focusing with both eyes by 6 months of age •Pupils at the inner folds (pseudostrabismus) •Startle reflex in newborns |
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Term
| What are the common head and neck variations in the older adult? |
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Definition
•Impaired near vision (presbyopia) •Decreased color vision and peripheral vision •Decreased adaptation to light and dark •A white ring around the cornea (arcus senilis) •Entropion and ectropion •Hearing loss (presbycusis) •Impaired conductive hearing •Elongated ear lobes •Prominent ear landmarks •Decreased neck range of motion •Nodular thyroid gland •Smaller, more easily palpated lymph glands |
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Term
| The thorax comprises the ________________. |
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Definition
| lungs, rib cage, cartilage, and intercostal muscles |
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Term
| Begin inspection of the thorax by observing the patient’s chest for __________________________. |
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Definition
| color,shape or contour, breathing patterns, and muscle development |
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Term
| The chest should be symmetric, with the transverse diameter ________ (greater/lesser) than the anteroposterior diameter. |
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Definition
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Term
| Palpation of the thorax is used to detect areas of __________________. |
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Definition
| sensitivity, chest expansion during respirations, and vibrations (fremitus) |
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Term
| _________ is a symmetric vibration of the chest wall that occurs with speaking. |
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Definition
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Term
| When percussing the thorax note the _______________ of sounds produced. |
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Definition
| intensity, pitch, duration, and quality |
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Term
| When a normal air-filled lung is percussed, the sound is _____________________. |
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Definition
| hollow, loud, low in pitch, and of long duration |
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Term
| A __________ tone is heard over bony or well-developed muscle tissue. |
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Definition
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Term
| ___________ heard over the trachea are high-pitched, harsh sounds, with expiration being ________ inspiration. |
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Definition
Bronchial sounds longer than |
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Term
| __________________ are heard over the mainstem bronchus and are moderate “blowing”sounds, with inspiration _______ expiration. |
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Definition
Bronchovesicular sounds equal to |
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Term
________________ are soft, low-pitched sounds, heard best over the base of the lungs during inspiration, which is ________ expiration.
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Definition
Vesicular breath sounds longer than |
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Term
| _______________ are not normally heard in the lungs but, if present, may be auscultated along with normal breath sounds. |
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Definition
| Adventitious breath sounds |
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Term
| _________ breathing is a general term used to refer to noisy, strenuous respirations. |
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Definition
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Term
| _________ is a harsh, high-pitched sound heard on inspiration when there is a narrowing of the upper airway, such as the larynx or trachea. |
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Definition
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Term
| ________ are fine to course crackling sounds made as air moves through wet secretions; they are most often heard on inspiration. |
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Definition
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Term
| Crackles are described as ______ when they are made by air passing through moisture in small air passages and alveoli and as _______ when they are made by air passing through moisture in the bronchioles, bronchi, and trachea. |
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Definition
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Term
| Coarse crackles can also be documented as ___________. |
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Definition
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Term
| ________ are continuous sounds that originate in small air passages that are narrowed by secretions, swelling, or tumors. |
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Definition
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Term
| Lung sounds that may be inspiratory or expiratory and are high-pitched sounds. |
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Definition
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Term
| Sputum should be assessed for ______________. |
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Definition
| color,consistency, and amount |
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Term
| What are the common thorax and lung variations in newborns and children? |
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Definition
•Louder breath sounds on auscultation •More rapid respiratory rate (until 8 to 10 years of age) •Use of abdominal muscles during respiration |
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Term
| What are the common thorax and lung variations in older adults? |
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Definition
•Increased anteroposterior chest diameter •Increase in the dorsal spinal curve (kyphosis) •Decreased thoracic expansion •Use of accessory muscles to exhale |
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Term
| Peripheral vascular assessment includes _____________________. |
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Definition
| measuring the blood pressure and assessing peripheral pulses and perfusion |
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Term
| The aortic, pulmonic, tricuspid, and apical areas, and Erb’s point |
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Definition
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Term
| The apical impulse is located at about the ___________________. |
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Definition
| fourth or fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line |
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Term
| Use systematic auscultation with heart sounds, from the __________________. |
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Definition
| aortic area to the pulmonic area to Erb’s point to the tricuspid area and finally to the mitral area |
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Term
| What are the characteristics of a sibilant wheeze? |
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Definition
• Musical or squeaking • High-pitched, continuous sounds • Auscultated during inspiration and expiration • Occurs in small air passages |
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Term
| What are the characteristics of a sonorous wheeze? |
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Definition
• Sonorous or course • Low-pitched, continuous sounds • Auscultated during inspiration and expiration • Coughing may clear the sound |
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Term
| What are the characteristics of crackles? |
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Definition
• Bubbling, crackling, popping • Low- to high-pitched, discontinuous sounds • Auscultated during inspiration • Occurs in small air passages, alveoli, bronchioles, bronchi, and trachea |
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Term
| What are the characteristics of friction rub? |
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Definition
• Rubbing or grating • Loudest over lower lateral anterior surface • Auscultated during inspiration and expiration |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| What are the common cardiovascular and peripheral vascular variations in newborns and children? |
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Definition
•Visible pulsation if the chest wall is thin •Sinus dysrhythmia (the rate increases with inspiration and decreases with expiration) •Presence of S3(in about one third of all children) •More rapid heart rate (until about 8 years of age) |
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Term
| What are the common cardiovascular and peripheral vascular variations in older adults? |
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Definition
•Difficult-to-palpate apical pulse •Difficult-to-palpate distal arteries •Dilated proximal arteries •More prominent and tortuous blood vessels; varicosities common •Increased systolic and diastolic blood pressure •Widening pulse pressure |
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Term
| _______ are abnormal “swooshing” sounds similar to murmurs and are heard over major blood vessels. |
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Definition
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Term
| Inspect the breasts for ________________. |
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Definition
| size, shape, symmetry, color, texture,and skin lesions |
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Term
| Sebaceous glands on the areolae of the breasts. |
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Definition
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Term
| The breast is assessed in _________. |
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Definition
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