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Details Title MICRO Final LCC Description study guide for Hurlburt final Total Cards 163 Subject Microbiology Created 12/08/2009

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Term 1. A threadlike DNA molecule is known as a: a) gene. b) chromosome. c) genome. d) supercoil.	Definition B chromosome.
Term 2. A permanent alteration in a DNA sequence is known as a/an: a) mutation. b) transcription. c) allele. d) transduction.	Definition A mutation.
Term 3. The process of duplicating the DNA molecule is known as: a) replication. b) transcription. c) translation. d) transformation.	Definition A replication
Term 4. Synthesis of RNA from a DNA template is called: a) replication. b) transcription. c) translation. d) transformation.	Definition B transcription.
Term 5. Synthesis of a protein molecule from information encoded in RNA is called: a) replication. b) transcription. c) translation. d) transformation.	Definition C translation.
Term 6. The particular RNA which encoded a protein sequence is known as: a) transfer RNA b) ribosomal RNA c) nuclear RNA d) messenger RNA	Definition D messenger RNA
Term 7. The point at which DNA strands unwind and separate to allow new strand synthesis is called the: a) DNA polymerase b) promoter c) replication fork d) ribosome	Definition C replication fork
Term 8. The two strands of DNA as it replicates are know as the: a) leaping and jumping strands b) leading and lagging strands c) leading and following strands d) leaping and hopping strands	Definition B leading and lagging strands
Term 9 Plasmids contain genetic information essential for the survival of the organism T/F	Definition F
Term 10. Discontinuous DNA fragments may be joined by DNA ligase enzyme T/F	Definition T
Term 11. The last codon on a messenger RNA molecule is called the stop codon. T/F	Definition T
Term 12. Transfer RNA molecules have fatty acids attached to them. T/F	Definition F
Term 13. Enzymes that are continuously synthesized within a cell are called constitutive enzymes T/F	Definition T
Term 14. Mutations that change one base pair to another are called frameshift mutations. T/F	Definition F
Term 1. A linear sequence of DNA nucleotides which provides the genetic information for a single characteristic is a A) chromosome B) plasmid C) gene D) base pair	Definition C gene
Term 3. A plasmid is a/an: A) extrachromosomal piece of DNA B) chromosomal site to which genetic activity can be traced C) body found in the cytoplasm that directs protein synthesis D) molecule that carries the genetic message of the chromosomal DNA	Definition A extrachromosomal piece of DNA
Term 7. Replication results in the formation of what type of new molecule? A) DNA B) RNA C) Protein D) lipid	Definition A DNA
Term 8. Transcription results in the formation of what type of new molecule? A) DNA B) RNA C) Protein D) lipid	Definition B RNA
Term 9. The process of ________ results in the synthesis of a new protein. A) replication B) transcription C) translation D) transversion	Definition C translation
Term 10. Reverse transcription occurs when A) RNA is used as a template to produce DNA B) DNA is used as a template to produce RNA C) Protein is used as a template to produce RNA D) RNA is used as a template to produce protein	Definition A RNA is used as a template to produce DNA
Term 11. Reverse transcription takes place A) only in fungi B) in some viruses C) in all bacteria D) in some bacteria	Definition B in some viruses
Term 12. Which statement is true? A) proofreading that occurs during transcription changes the RNA into DNA B) translation is a less accurate process than transcription C) reverse transcription is a less accurate process than regular transcription D) errors in replication can be proofread during transcription	Definition C reverse transcription is a less accurate process than regular
Term 14. Bacterial genomes A) have rarely been sequenced as it takes a very long time B) only contain adenine, uracil, cytosine and guanine C) contain all the information for the structure and functioning of a cell D) when sequenced 100% of the genes are with known cellular function	Definition C contain all the information for the structure and functioning of a cell
Term 15. Bacterial chromosomes A) must be present for bacteria to stay alive and reproduce B) are small segments of DNA that have the ability to move from one position to another C) contain genetic information that is helpful but not necessary for survival D) are always circular and only one is present in each bacteria	Definition A must be present for bacteria to stay alive and reproduce
Term 16. During replication, DNA is synthesized by A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase C) ribosomes D) ribozymes	Definition A DNA polymerase
Term 17. During DNA replication A) the leading strand is synthesized in the 3' to 5' direction B) the leading strand is synthesized discontinuously C) the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction D) both strands are synthesized discontinuously	Definition C the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction
Term 18. Okazaki fragments make up A) part of the small ribosomal subunit B) part of the tRNA C) part of the lagging strand of newly synthesized DNA D) part of the mRNA	Definition C part of the lagging strand of newly synthesized DNA
Term 19. After DNA replication of a bacterial chromosome, the new DNA contains A) 2 newly synthesized strands of DNA copied from the original parent strands B) one strand of parent DNA along with one newly synthesized strand C) small segments of parent DNA interspersed with newly synthesized segments of DNA D) two of the above	Definition B one strand of parent DNA along with one newly synthesized strand
Term 20. Which of the following statements is true? A) during DNA replication the leading strand serves as a template for replication of the lagging strand B) fragments on the lagging strand are joined together by ligase C) a bacterial chromosome is made up of individual units called Okazaki fragments D) two strands of a double helix combine by base pairing in a parallel fashion	Definition B fragments on the lagging strand are joined together by ligase
Term 21. Messenger RNA A) is formed in the 3' to 5' direction B) is found only in prokaryotes C) contains uracil instead of thymine D) is synthesized using the enzyme ligase	Definition C contains uracil instead of thymine
Term 22. RNA polymerase uses ________ as a template to synthesize ________. A) RNA, proteins B) RNA, DNA C) DNA, RNA D) DNA, proteins	Definition C DNA, RNA
Term 24. The information carried by DNA is used to create a ________ which then moves to the ribosome for protein synthesis. A) tRNA B) rRNA C) siRNA D) mRNA	Definition D mRNA
Term 25. A mRNA molecule can be broken down into three nucleotide units called A) amino acids B) bases C) codons D) anticodons	Definition C codons
Term 30. Protein synthesis A) in bacteria can occur with several ribosomes attached to the same mRNA molecule B) uses very little of a bacterial cell's energy C) can occur at the same time as an mRNA is being transcribed D) two of the above	Definition D two of the above
Term 31. In eukaryotes, transcription takes place in the ________ while translation takes place in the ________. A) nucleus, nucleus B) nucleus, cytoplasm C) cytoplasm, nucleus D) cytoplasm, cytoplasm	Definition B nucleus, cytoplasm
Term 32. Which of the following properties are exclusive to mRNA? A) combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes B) carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein C) molecules contain an anticodon D) contains the nucleotide thymine	Definition B carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein
Term 33. Which of the following properties are exclusive to tRNA? A) combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes B) carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein C) molecules contain an anticodon D) contains the nucleotide thymine	Definition C molecules contain an anticodon
Term 34. Which of the following properties are exclusive to rRNA? A) combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes B) carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein C) molecules contain an anticodon D) contains the nucleotide thymine	Definition A combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes
Term 42. ________ refers to the specific characteristics displayed by an organism. A) Genotype B) Mutation C) Phenotype D) Genes	Definition C Phenotype
Term 2. Gene transfer from parent to offspring is called: a) lateral gene transfer b) horizontal gene transfer c) vertical gene transfer d) diagonal gene transfer	Definition C vertical gene transfer
Term 3. The uptake of DNA molecules from the surrounding medium is called: a) transduction b) transformation c) transcription d) translation	Definition b) transformation
Term 4. In ______________, plasmid DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another via a sex pilus. a) transformation b) conjugation c) transduction d) transposition	Definition B conjugation
Term 5. In transduction, _______________ carry bacterial DNA into a new recipient cell. a) fungi b) plasmids c) bacteria d) viruses	Definition D viruses
Term 7. An organism with its cell wall removed is called a: a) chloroplast b) mitochondrion c) protoplast d) elastoplast	Definition C protoplast
Term 1. When genes are passed on from parent to offspring, which of the following events has taken place? A) horizontal gene transfer B) transduction C) vertical gene transfer D) retrograde gene transfer	Definition C vertical gene transfer
Term 2. Bacterial conjugation is an example of A) transduction B) vertical gene transfer C) horizontal gene transfer D) bacterial transformation	Definition C horizontal gene transfer
Term 3. In horizontal gene transfer A) genes are passed between bacteria of different generations B) genes are passed from mother cells to daughter cells C) genes are passed between bacteria of the same generation D) none of the above	Definition C genes are passed between bacteria of the same generation
Term 4. Which of the following processes increases variation seen in bacteria? A) transformation B) conjugation C) transduction D) all of the above	Definition D all of the above
Term 6. In Griffith's experiments, the “transforming substance” was A) RNA B) Protein C) Polysaccharides D) DNA	Definition D DNA
Term 8. A bacterium that is transformed A) cannot form a conjugation pilus B) has acquired naked DNA from the environment C) will probably die within 48 hours D) if injected, it always will result in the death of a mouse	Definition B has acquired naked DNA from the environment
Term 8. A bacterium that is transformed A) cannot form a conjugation pilus B) has acquired naked DNA from the environment C) will probably die within 48 hours D) if injected, it always will result in the death of a mouse	Definition B has acquired naked DNA from the environment
Term 10. The transfer of DNA between bacteria cells by a virus is A) transformation B) transduction C) transferration D) conjugation	Definition B transduction
Term 11. A lytic viral cycle is usually the result of infection by a A) prophage B) virulent phage C) temperate phage D) antiphage	Definition B virulent phage
Term 12. A virus which incorporates its DNA into the DNA of its host organism is a A) virulent phage B) prophage C) lytic phage D) none of the above	Definition B prophage
Term 13. A phage is A) a virus which can infect bacteria B) a virus which can infect humans C) a small bacterial cell which needs to live inside another cell D) a virus that shares its DNA with its host cell	Definition A a virus which can infect bacteria
Term 14. Which of the following happens earliest in a typical bacteriophage lytic cycle? A) phage inserts its DNA into the host cell B) phage DNA is inserted into the bacterial chromosome C) bacterial cell lyses D) viral DNA and proteins are produced by the host cell	Definition A phage inserts its DNA into the host cell
Term 15. A viral cycle which ends with the rupture of the cell and release of new viral particles is the A) temperate cycle B) lytic cycle C) lysogenic cycle D) prophage cycle	Definition B lytic cycle
Term 19. Which of the following processes requires contact between donor and recipient cells? A) transduction B) transcription C) conjugation D) transformation	Definition C conjugation
Term 20. The genetic information needed for a cell to participate in conjugation resides in the DNA of a cell's A) bacterial chromosome B) F plasmid C) F pilus D) mitochondria	Definition B F plasmid
Term 22. When cells conjugate for longer periods of time, which of the following will occur? A) fewer genes will be transferred B) more genes will be transferred C) the same number of genes will be transferred D) It is impossible to tell. Conjugation time and number of genes transferred are not related	Definition B more genes will be transferred
Term 24. F' plasmids A) are responsible for high frequency recombination B) carry some chromosomal genes C) are those plasmids that have never been incorporated into a bacterial chromosome D) none of the above	Definition B carry some chromosomal genes
Term 29. Plasmids do which of the following A) direct synthesis of conjugation pili B) provide resistance to certain antibiotics C) induce the formation of tumors in plants D) all of the above are functions of plasmids	Definition D all of the above are functions of plasmids
Term 31. A ________ is a genetic sequence able to move from one location in a chromosome to another. A) plasmid B) F factor C) transposon D) R factor	Definition C transposon
Term 10. Viruses may be classified: a) by the type of nucleic acid they possess b) by the presence or absence of an envelope c) as plus (sense) RNA strand or minus (antisense) RNA strand d) as single or double stranded e) by all the criteria mentioned above	Definition D as single or double stranded
Term 11. In viral replication the order of events is: a) adsorption, penetration, synthesis, maturation, release b) adsorption, synthesis, penetration, maturation, release c) penetration, synthesis, adsorption, maturation, release d) release, synthesis, maturation, adsorption, penetration e) maturation, adsorption, penetration, synthesis, release	Definition A adsorption, penetration, synthesis, maturation, release
Term 12. Bacteriophages: a) infect fungal cells b) infect animal cells c) are cultured in embryonated eggs d) may undergo a lytic cycle e) may be used to cure viral diseases	Definition D may undergo a lytic cycle
Term 14. Prions are not: a) pathogens for which no nucleic acid chromosome can be found b) destroyed by incineration c) sensitive to proteases and protein denaturing agents like phenol d) responsible for Mad Cow Disease e) affected by radiation that would damage a virus	Definition E affected by radiation that would damage a virus
Term 1. Viruses have some of the properties of living organisms. Which of the following is a characteristic of all organisms, but not of viruses? A) presence of a plasma membrane B) capable of metabolism C) ability to reproduce D) grow in response to their environment conditions	Definition A presence of a plasma membrane
Term 6. A naked virus A) has no protein wrapping around its nucleic acid. B) is unable to attach itself to a host cell. C) has no membranous envelope D) has no infectious piece of DNA	Definition C has no membranous envelope
Term 10. The families of RNA viruses are distinguished from one another by all of the following except A) presence of an envelope B) presence of a capsid and its shape C) sense or nonsense RNA D) whether RNA is linear or circular	Definition D whether RNA is linear or circular
Term 11. Viruses that have a single strand of RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis are known as A) retroviruses. B) proviruses. C) viroids. D) bacteriophages. E) lytic phages.	Definition A retroviruses.
Term 13. Common cold and flu are caused by which of the following pair of viruses? A) rhinovirus – orthomyxoviridae B) enterovirus – retrovirus C) flavivirus – rhinovirus D) poxyvirus – papillomavirus	Definition A rhinovirus – orthomyxoviridae
Term 21. Reactivation of chickenpox long after the initial infection leads to the disease A) cancer B) influenza C) shingles D) varicella	Definition C shingles
Term 22. Viruses can be grouped into the following categories except: A) animal viruses B) bacterial viruses C) plant viruses D) fungal viruses	Definition D fungal viruses
Term 23. A virus that is specific for a bacterial host is called A) phage B) prion C) viroid D) virion	Definition A phage
Term 28. Which of the following represents the correct order of steps in a typical virus replication cycle? A) maturation à adsorption à penetration à release B) adsorption à penetration à release à maturation C) adsorption à penetration à synthesis à maturation D) adsorption à penetration à maturation à synthesis	Definition C adsorption à penetration à synthesis à maturation
Term 29. Assembly of new viral components into a complete virion takes place during viral A) maturation B) adsorption C) penetration D) synthesis	Definition A maturation
Term 32. Bacteriophages contain the enzyme lysozyme, which is used to A) replicate viral DNA. B) shut down bacterial cell metabolism. C) weaken bacterial cell walls. D) help recognize the proper bacterial host.	Definition C weaken bacterial cell walls.
Term 38. Viral DNA lying within a bacterial chromosome is called a ________ while the combination of a bacterial cell and its temperate phage is called a ________. A) prophage, lysogen B) plaque, lysogen C) lysogen, prophage D) prophage, retrovirus	Definition A prophage, lysogen
Term 40. Growth of a bacterium which contains a prophage represents a A) lytic cycle B) temperate cycle C) lysogenic cycle D) induction	Definition C lysogenic cycle
Term 41. A lysogenous phage which enters a lytic cycle is said to have undergone A) transformation B) induction C) transcription D) lysogenic conversion	Definition B induction
Term 46. A drug or other agent that induces defects during embryonic development is known as a A) syncytia B) capsomere C) teratogen D) carcinogen	Definition C teratogen
Term 47. A prion is made of which of the following? A) RNA B) DNA C) proteins D) both DNA and RNA	Definition C proteins
Term 49. Viroids are composed of A) single infectious proteins B) double stranded RNA C) single-stranded linear DNA D) single-stranded circular RNA	Definition D single-stranded circular RNA
Term 55. The only RNA tumor virus that causes human cancer is A) retroviruses B) proviruses C) rhinovirus D) rubella virus	Definition A retroviruses
Term 45. Enveloped animal viruses typically leave the host cell by A) host cell lysis B) host cell rupture C) budding D) animal viruses never leave the host cell	Definition C budding
Term 36. Plaques are A) bacterial colonies B) another name for single viruses C) areas where bacterial cells have been lysed D) bacterial film	Definition C areas where bacterial cells have been lysed
Term 2. Adaptive defenses respond to molecules known as: a) antigens. b) antibodies. c) bacteria. d) viruses.	Definition A antigens.
Term 3. Innate defenses include: a) skin and mucous membranes. b) mucus. c) phagocytic white blood cells. d) all of the above.	Definition D all of the above.
Term 4. Physical barriers to pathogens include: a) fever. b) interferon production. c) inflammation. d) hairs in the nose.	Definition D hairs in the nose.
Term 5. Chemical barriers to pathogens include: a) fever. b) stomach acid production. c) inflammation. d) hairs in the nose.	Definition B stomach acid production.
Term 6. The “first-response” phagocytic cell in an infection is the: a) lymphocyte. b) neutrophil c) basophil. d) monocyte.	Definition B neutrophil
Term 7. Phagocytes engulf and destroy microbes in a process known as: a) chemotaxis. b) adherence. c) digestion. d) phagocytosis.	Definition D phagocytosis.
Term 8. In order, the four stages of phagocytosis are: a) chemotaxis, adherence, digestion, ingestion. b) adherence, chemotaxis, ingestion, digestion. c) chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion. d) digestion, chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion	Definition C chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion.
Term 9. During phagocytosis, microbes are digested in the phagosome.T/F	Definition F
Term 10. Leukocytes that kill intracellular viruses are called natural killer cells. T/F	Definition T
Term 1. All of the following are components of the nonspecific host defenses except A) fever B) mucus C) antibodies D) interferon	Definition C antibodies
Term 2. Which of the following is not a chemical barrier? A) mucous membrane B) saliva C) gastric juice D) complement	Definition D complement
Term 4. Physical barriers of nonspecific defenses A) include both the cells that line the body surfaces and the chemicals they secrete B) include phagocytes and interferon C) respond to antigens by making thousands of different antibodies D) are part of the host cellular defenses	Definition A include both the cells that line the body surfaces and the chemicals they secrete
Term 7. The granulocyte that releases the inflammatory agent histamine is a A) neutrophil B) monocyte C) lymphocyte D) basophil	Definition D basophil
Term 8. Which of the following does not partake in the process of phagocytosis? A) chemotaxis B) granulation C) adherence D) ingestion	Definition B granulation
Term 15. Phagocytic leukocytes that contain oxidative chemicals to kill internalized microorgansisms are called A) lymphocytes B) platelets C) mast cells D) neutrophils	Definition D neutrophils
Term 16. Granulocytes include all of the following except A) basophils B) neutrophils C) lymphocytes D) eosinophils	Definition C lymphocytes
Term 17. A phagocyte A) contains phagolysosomes that fuse with a phagosome to produce a lysosome B) must first adhere to an infectious agent before it can find it C) in the blood include monocytes and neutrophils D) refers to the oxidative chemicals that kill internalized microorganisms	Definition C in the blood include monocytes and neutrophils
Term 18. Steps in a phagocytic cell destroying an invading microorganism include A) chemotaxis à adherence à ingestion à digestion B) finding à filtering à secreting enzymes à streptolysin C) chemotaxis à granuloma à adherence à histamine D) finding à invading à clotting à regulating temperature	Definition A chemotaxis à adherence à ingestion à digestion
Term 33. A protein that interferes with the ability of a virus to replicate inside a host cell is called: A) streptolysin B) leukocidin C) interferon D) histamine	Definition C interferon
Term 37. Interferons are stimulated by viruses and A) are produced only by macrophages B) stimulate the production of antiviral proteins in neighboring cells C) form membrane attack complexes D) none of the above	Definition B stimulate the production of antiviral proteins in neighboring cells
Term 38. The classical pathway of complement activation involves which of the following proteins? A) C1, C4 and C2 B) C3 only C) factor B D) factor D and factor D	Definition A C1, C4 and C2
Term 39. Complement activation results in all of the following physiological processes except A) opsonization B) formation of membrane attack complexes C) inflammation D) fever	Definition D fever
Term 40. What non-specific immune component is directly responsible for the lysis of invading microorganisms? A) chemotaxis B) membrane attack complex C) opsonin D) chronic inflammation	Definition B membrane attack complex
Term 45. Complement A) system consists of over 20 proteins that function in a cascade-like manner B) activation results in the onset of fever C) pathway involves factors B, D and P D) all of the above	Definition D all of the above
Term 47. The binding and coating of the surfaces of invading microbes by either antibodies or C3b is A) aided by the release of cytokines by phagocytes B) necessary for phagocytosis of all microbes C) called oposonization D) responsible for the direct lysis of invading microrganisms	Definition C called oposonization
Term 50. Cytokines A) are soluble proteins B) function in host defenses such as macrophage chemotaxis C) include interferons D) all of the above	Definition D all of the above
Term 2. Adaptive defenses respond to molecules known as: a) antigens. b) antibodies. c) bacteria. d) viruses.	Definition A antigens.
Term 3. Innate defenses include: a) skin and mucous membranes. b) mucus. c) phagocytic white blood cells. d) all of the above.	Definition D all of the above
Term 2. Immunity gained when a person’s own lymphocytes respond to an antigen is called: a) active. b) passive. c) natural. d) artificial.	Definition A active.
Term 3. Immunity gained when antibodies from an outside source are administered is called: a) active. b) passive. c) natural. d) artificial	Definition B passive.
Term 4. Immunity resulting from exposure to a pathogen is called: a) natural active. b) natural passive. c) artificial active. d) artificial passive	Definition A natural active.
Term 5. Immunity resulting from exposure to a vaccine is called: a) natural active. b) natural passive. c) artificial active. d) artificial passive	Definition C artificial active.
Term 6. Sites on an antigen which bind specific antibodies are called: a) polysaccharides b) epitopes c) variables d) heavy chains	Definition B epitopes
Term 7. Lymphocytes that produce antibodies are called: a) T lymphocytes b) natural killer cells c) B lymphocytes d) antigen presenting cells	Definition C B lymphocytes
Term 8. The two types of immunity are described as: a) humoral and cell-mediated b) humorous and serious c) lymphocytic and phagocytic d) inflammatory and cellular	Definition A humoral and cell-mediated
Term 10. T cells protect best against virally infected cells and eukaryotic foreign cells such as pathogens, cancer cells and transplanted tissues. T/F	Definition T
Term 12. Helper T cells are needed for both humoral and cell-mediated immunity. T/F	Definition T
Term 13. Ig M is the largest antibody.T/F	Definition T
Term 14. Cytotoxic T cells and NK cells destroy target cells by releasing perforin protein. T/F	Definition T
Term 15. Monoclonal antibodies are produced from lymphocytes isolated from the human body. T/F	Definition F
Term 2. Hypersensitivity is also known as: a) overtiredness. b) allergy. c) hysteria. d) toxicity.	Definition B allergy.
Term 3. Immediate hypersensitivity is also known as: a) anaphylaxis. b) delayed hypersensitivity. c) antigen hypersensitivity. d) allergen hypersensitivity.	Definition A anaphylaxis.
Term 4. In delayed hypersensitivity ______________ react with the foreign antigens, causing tissue destruction. a) T cells b) B cells c) NK cells d) neutrophils	Definition A T cells
Term 5. A disease where the body’s immune system attacks its own tissues is called: a) allergic disease. b) antigen disease. c) clonal disease. d) autoimmune disease.	Definition D autoimmune disease.
Term 7. Anaphylaxis is caused by an excess response of: a) Ig A. b) Ig G. c) Ig M. d) Ig E.	Definition D Ig E.
Term 1. Which refers to the ability of a host organism to recognize and defend itself against the onslaught of pathogenic microorganisms? A) immunity B) passive immunity C) susceptibility D) innate immunology	Definition A immunity
Term 2. Adaptive immunity is A) the ability of a host to mount a defense against a specific inherited agent B) only acquired artificially C) only acquired naturally D) immunity obtained in some manner other than by heredity	Definition D immunity obtained in some manner other than by heredity
Term 4. Injection of a person with a vaccine that induces protective immunity in that individual is an example of what type of immunity? A) active natural B) innate natural C) active artificial D) passive natural	Definition C active artificial
Term 6. What is a substance that is recognized by the body as foreign and normally induces an immune response? A) Fc fragment B) Fab fragment C) Fab and Fc fragment D) epitope or antigenic determinant	Definition D epitope or antigenic determinant
Term 7. An area on an antigen molecule to which an antibody molecule binds is called: A) Fc fragment B) Fab fragment C) Fab and Fc fragment D) epitope or antigenic determinant	Definition D epitope or antigenic determinant
Term 8. Antigens are found on A) human cells B) bacteria and viruses C) antibodies D) A and B	Definition D A and B
Term 9. A protein molecule produced in a host in response to an antigen and is capable of binding specifically to that antigen is called: A) perforin B) antigen C) antibody D) cytokine	Definition C antibody
Term 10. Most antigens are A) large and complex molecules B) polysaccharides C) are proteins with molecular weights less than 10,000 Da D) proteins that bind to a specific antigenic determinant	Definition A large and complex molecules
Term 11. The concentration of antibody needed to bind to and neutralize an antigen is called: A) tolerance B) T-cell C) titer D) antitoxin	Definition C titer
Term 13. All of the following cells are types of T lymphocytes except A) regulatory B) delayed hypersensitivity C) helper D) plasma	Definition D plasma
Term 14. Cells that synthesize and release antibody molecules are A) plasma cells B) stem cells C) cytotoxic T lymphocytes D) helper T lymphocytes	Definition A plasma cells
Term 15. What is the site where stem cells develop into B lymphocyte in humans? A) bursa of Fabricius B) thymus C) blood D) bone marrow	Definition D bone marrow
Term 16. Cells that are neither T or B cells, but function to non-specifically kill cells infected by viruses are called: A) natural killer cells B) phagocytic cells C) memory cells D) blood cells	Definition A natural killer cells
Term 17. Immunity that is mediated by antibodies is called A) innate B) humoral C) cell-mediated D) non-specific	Definition B humoral
Term 18. Immunity that is mediated by T lymphocytes is called A) cell-mediated B) antibody-mediated C) innate acquired D) innate natural	Definition A cell-mediated
Term 20. Both humoral and cellular immunity share the following attributes except A) distinguishes self from non-self B) specificity C) memory D) first-line of defense	Definition D first-line of defense
Term 22. After differentiation how do B cells migrate? A) bone marrow à blood cirulation à lymph nodes B) bone marrow à thymus à blood circulation C) bone marrow à bursa of Fabricius à lymph nodes D) lymph node à bone marrow à blood circulation	Definition A bone marrow à blood cirulation à lymph nodes
Term 23. The ability of the specific immune system to recognize self from non-self is mediated by A) cross reaction B) clonal selection C) gamma globulin D) species immunity	Definition B clonal selection
Term 24. The process whereby lymphocytes which recognize self antigens are removed, thus producing tolerance in the host is A) heterogeneity B) memory C) primary response D) clonal deletion	Definition D clonal deletion
Term 25. The ability of the humoral response to produce a vast array of antibodies, each with uniqueness to a given antigen is responsible for the immune system's A) memory B) hyperimmune serum C) heterogeneity D) homogeneity	Definition C heterogeneity
Term 27. All of the following pertain to the structure of an antibody molecule except A) two identical light chains B) heavy and light chains held together by disulfide bonds C) binds 2 antigens per molecule D) two Fc fragments and one Fab fragment	Definition D two Fc fragments and one Fab fragment
Term 28. Which class of immunoglobulins consists of five units and is connected by a J chain? A) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE	Definition C IgM
Term 29. Antibodies produced by the humoral response help eliminate foreign antigens in all of the following ways except A) neutralization B) opsonization C) complement activation D) natural killer cells	Definition D natural killer cells
Term 30. All of the following have correctly matched antibody class with their function except A) IgD – function largely unknown B) IgE – binds to mast cells and basophils C) IgM – plays a role in mediating allergies and asthma D) IgG – crosses placenta	Definition C IgM – plays a role in mediating allergies and asthma
Term 31. Monoclonal antibodies are all of the following except A) antibodies that are produced at greatest frequency in the body B) made by hydridomas which make only one specific antibody C) produced by a clone of cultured cells D) used for diagnostic tests and to treat rheumatoid arthritis	Definition A antibodies that are produced at greatest frequency in the body
Term 33. All of the following pertain to the role of activated helper T cells in cellular mediated immunity except A) differentiation into memory TC cells B) recognizes MHC with antigenic peptide on macrophages C) differentiation into TH1 cells D) differentiation into TH2 cells	Definition A differentiation into memory TC cells
Term 34. Which of the following immune cells kills infected cells by releasing the lethal protein perforin? A) NK cells B) B cells C) macrophages D) TH2 cells	Definition A NK cells
Term 35. Antigens that have the capacity to activate huge numbers of immune T cells non-specifically resulting in a large immune response that results in diseases are A) self antigens B) non-self antigens C) superantigens D) antitoxins	Definition C superantigens
Term 37. Which region of an antibody determines the class of that particular antibody? A) constant B) variable C) light chain D) Fab	Definition A constant
Term 38. Agglutination A) is inactivation of bacterial toxins due to the binding of an antibody B) leads to the ingestion of the particle by macrophages due to opsonization C) requires complement D) occurs when antibody-antigen complexes form large clumped particles	Definition D occurs when antibody-antigen complexes form large clumped particles
Term 40. Which of the following T cells is activated by interleukin-1 and in turn activates B cells to differentiate into plasma cells? A) NK cells B) Tc cells C) T regulatory D) TH cells	Definition D TH cells

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