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Dental Admission Test
Biology
152
Biology
Undergraduate 4
09/27/2010

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Cards

Term
1. Describe the Cell Theory

2. (T/F) Electron microscopy can be used for the study of living specimens
Definition
1. The cell theory states that all living things are composed of cells; cells are the basic functional unit of life; cells arise only from pre-existing cells; and cells carry their genetic information in the form of DNA.

2. False, preparation requirements kill the specimen.
Term
1. What type of laboratory method can be used to separate cells without destroying them?

2. T/F Differential centrifugation can be used to separate cell structures with similar densities.

3. Name the two distinct groups into which all cells can be categorized.

What is the key differentiating criterion between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Definition
1. Low speed centrifugation can separate cells on the basis of type without destroying them.
2. False, different densities are required for separation.
3. All cells can be categorized as either prokaryotes or eukaryotes.
4. Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles; however, prokaryotes do not.
Term
1. T/F Bacteria and viruses are examples of prokaryotic cells.
2. Describe bacterial DNA.
3. T/F Bacteria contain ribosomes
Definition
1.False, bacteria are prokaryotic while viruses are non-living acellular structures.
2. Bacterial DNA consists of a single circular chromosome.
3. True, but prokaryotic ribosomes are smaller.
Term
1. Name the components of a typical bacterial cell.
2. Where does respiration occur in the bacterial cell?
3. T/F All multicellular organisms are composed of eukaryotic cells
4. Which type of eukaryotic cells have a cell wall?
Definition
1. Cell wall, cell membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, flagella, and DNA.
2. The cell membrane is the site of respiration in bacteria.
3. True
4. Plant cells and fungal cells have a cell wall.
Term
1. T/F Plant cells have all of the organelles of an animal cell, plus a cell wall and chloroplasts.
2. What is cytosol?
3. Define the fluid mosaic model.
Definition
1. False, plant cells do not have centrioles.
2. Cytosol is the fluid component of the cytoplasm.
3. The fluid mosaic model states that a cell membrane consists of a phospholipid bilayer with proteins embedded throughout.
Term
1. Is the interior of a cell membrane hydrophilic or hydrophobic?
2. Asked to label where hydrophilic and hydrophobic are when given a phospholipid bilayer.
3. What is the function of a transport protein?
Definition
1. The interior of a cell membrane is hydrophobic.
2. Polar heads- hydrophilic, and non-polar tails are hydrophobic.
3. A transport protein helps move polar molecules and certain ions across the cell membrane.
Term
1. What is a membrane receptor?
2. Can small polar and non-polar molecules easily cross the cell membrane?
3. How does a large, charged molecule cross the cell membrane?
4. T/F The nucleus is surrounded by a single-layered membrane.
Definition
1. A membrane receptor is a protein (or glycoprotein) that binds to molecules in the extracellular environment.
2. Yes, because of their size, small polar and non-polar molecules can easily traverse the cell membrane.
3. A large charged particle usually crosses the cell membrane with the help of a carrier protein.
4. False, the nuclear membrane is double-layered.
Term
1. How is material exchanged between the nucleus and the cytoplasm?
2. What is a histone?
3. What is the function of the nucleolus?
4. What is the function of a ribosome?
Definition
1. The nuclear membrane contains nuclear pores that selectively allow for the exchange of materials.
2. A histone is a structural protein complexed with eukaryotic DNA to form a chromosome.
3. The nucleolus synthesizes ribosomal RNA (rRNA).
4. A ribosome is the sight of protein translation (assembly) during protein synthesis.
Term
1. What is the general function of endoplasmic reticulum?
Definition
Its involved in the transport of materials throughout the cell.
Term
1. T/F Proteins synthesized by RER are secreted directly into the cytoplasm.
2. What is the function of the golgi apparatus?
3. What happens to a secretory vesicle after it is released from the Golgi apparatus.
Definition
1. False, they are secreted into the cisternae of RER and then sent to smooth ER, where they are secreted into vesicles.
2. The Golgi apparatus receives vesicles from smooth ER, modifies them, and repackages them into vesicles for distribution.
3. A secretory vesicle from the Golgi fuses with the cell membrane to release its contents via exocytosis.
Term
1. T/F Vesicles are membrane-bound sacs involved in transport and storage of cellular materials.
2. What is a lysosome?
3. T/F lysosomes fuse with endocytotic vesicles and help digest their contents.
Definition
1. True
2. A lysosome is a membrane-bound vesicle that contains hydrolytic enzymes involved in intracellular digestion.
3. True
Term
1. How does pH in the interior of a lysosome compare with the pH in the rest of the cell?
2. What would happen if a lysosome released its contents into the cytoplasm?
Definition
1. The pH is acidic and therefore has a lower pH than the rest of the cell.
2. Hydrolytic enzymes of the lysosome would digest the organelles and kill the cell. This process is autolysis.
Term
1. What is the function of the mitochondria?
Definition
1. Sites of aerobic respiration and supply most of the cell's energy.
Term
1. T/F Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar structures.
2. What is the function of the cell wall?
Definition
1. True
2. A cell wall protects the cell from external stimuli and desiccation- state of extreme dryness.
Term
1. What is the function of the centrioles?
2. What is a centrosome?
Definition
1. Centrioles are involved in spindle formation during cell replication. THEY ARE FOUND ONLY IN ANIMAL CELLS
2. The centrosome is the region of a cell that contains the CENTRIOLES.
Term
What is the function of the cytoskeleton?
Definition
Mechanical support, maintains the cells shape, and functions in motility.
Term
ID the following cellular structures from a diagram.
Pinocytic vesicle, centrioles, nucleolus, nucleus, Golgi apparatus, ER, ribosome, cytoplasm, mitochondrion, lysosome, nuclear membrane, and cell membrane.
Definition
Term
1. T/F Simple diffusion is a passive process that requires energy.
2. Define osmosis.
3. What would happen to a cell if it were put in a hypertonic solution?
Definition
1. False, simple diffusion is a passive process and therefore DOES NOT require energy.
2. Osmosis is the simple diffusion of water from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration. *** Water follows solute.
3. A hypertonic solution would cause water to flow out of a cell.
Hyper= shrink because you lose weight.
Hypo= hippo cause your fat.
Term

1. T/F A hypotonic solution will cause water to flow into a cell, causing it to swell.

2. Define isotonic.

3. Define facilitated diffusion.

Definition

1. True.

2. A medium and cell are said to be isotonic when the solute concentrations of the medium and the cell are equal.

3. Facilitated diffusion is the net movement of dissolved particles down their concentrations gradient with the help of carrier molecules.

Term
1. T/F Facilitated diffusion requires energy.
2. Define active transport.
3. T/F Active transport requires energy.
Definition
1. False, all forms of diffusion, including facilitated diffusion, are passive processes.
2. Active transport is the net movement of dissolved particles against their concentration gradient with the help of carrier molecules. REQUIRES ATP.
3. True.
Term
1. What is endocytosis?
2. What is exocytosis?
Definition
1. Process in which the cell membrane invaginates, forming an intracellular vesicle containing extracellular medium.
2. Exocytosis is a process in which a vesicle within the cell fuses with the cell membrane and releases its contents to the extracellular medium.
Term
1. What are the components of a virus?
2. What kinds of nucleic acid are found in viruses?
Definition
1. A protein coat and nucleic acid.
2. Single or double stranded DNA or RNA.
Term
1. T/F Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites.
2. What is a bacteriophage?
Definition
1. True.
2. A virus that infects bacteria only.
Term
1. How do enzymes speed up a reaction?
2. T/F Enzymes get used up during the course of a reaction.
3. T/F enzymes are very selective in the reactions they catalyze.
Definition
1. Enzymes are protein catalysts that accelerate a reaction by reducing the amount of ACTIVATION ENERGY REQUIRED.
2. False, enzymes are catalysts and therefore dont get used up during the course of a reaction.
3. True.
Term
1. What is a substrate?
2. What is an active site?
3. What is the lock and key theory?
Definition
1. A substrate is a molecule upon which an enzyme acts.
2. An active site is the area of an enzyme to which a substrate binds.
3. The lock and key theory states that an enzyme and corresponding active site are exactly complementary.
Term
1. T/F The induced fit hypothesis holds that a substrate causes a conformational change in its corresponding active site to facilitate substrate binding.
Definition
1. true.
Term
What is a coenzyme.
Definition
An organic cofactor for an enzymatic reaction. (vitamin)
Term
1. What happens to the free energy (Delta G) of a reaction if it is catalyzed by an enzyme?
2. What happens as the concentration of substrate is increased in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
3. T/F At very high concentrations of substrate, reaction rate approximates Vmax.
Definition
1. The free energy of is the same with or without an enzyme.
2. The reaction rate increases until most of the active sites are filled and then the reaction rate plateaus at Vmax.
3. True.
Term
1. T/F All enzymes in the body are proteins.
2. What is the optimal temperature for most enzymes in the body?
Definition
1. True
2. 37 degrees celsius
Term
1. T/F All enzymes in the body operate most efficiently at a pH of around 7.2
Definition
Fale, enzymes in the digestive tract work best at acidic and basic pH's.
Term
What is a photoautotroph?
Definition
An organism that can harness sunlight to create energy via photosynthesis (plants)
Term
What is the net reaction for glycolysis?
Definition
Glucose + 2ADP + 2Pi + 2NAD+ = 2 Pyruvate + 2ATP + 2NADPH + 2H+ + 2H20
Term
T/F An oxidizing agent gets oxidized during a reaction.
Definition
False, it gets reduced and thereby causes another molecule to be oxidized.
Term
Does oxidation result in the loss or gain of electrons?
Definition
Remember OIL RIG
Oxidation Is Losing electrons
Reduction Is Gaining electrons
Term
1. What are the energy carrier molecules for a cell's metabolic processes?
Definition
1. ATP, NAD+, NADP+, and FAD.
Term
How do ATP, NAD+, NADP+, and FAD store energy?
Definition
ATP stores energy in its high-energy phosphate bonds. The rest store energy in high-potential electrons.
Term
What happens to the number of electrons when a reactant gets reduced?
Definition
Gainage lol or increasing for the serious people
Term
1. T/F Glycolysis results in substrate level phosphorylation of ADP.
2. Is glycolysis an aerobic or anaerobic process?
3. What are the possible products of fermentation?
4. When does a cell rely on fermentation for its energy needs?
Definition
1. True
2. Glycolysis is an anaerobic process
3. The products of fermentation are either ethanol or lactic acid.
4. A cell utilizes fermentation in an anaerobic environment. (oxygen-less)
Term
1. What is the net gain in ATP from cellular respiration?
2. T/F Cellular respiration requires aerobic conditions.
3. What are the three stages of cellular respiration?
4. T/F During pyruvate decarboxylation, a molecule of CO2 is lost, leaving acetyl CoA.
Definition
1. Eukaryotes= 36 ATP; Prokaryotes= 38 ATP- It costs 2 ATP in Euk. because it takes ATP to transfer NADH produced in glycolysis into mitochondria.

2. True
3. The three stages of cellular respiration are: pyruvate decarboxylation, citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle), and the electron transport chain.
4. True
Term
1. One molecule of glucose requires how many turns of the CAC?
2. How many ATP, NADH, and FADH2 are created in one turn of the CAC?
3. What is a cytochrome?
Definition
1. The citric acid cycle (TCA) completes two cycles per molecule of glucose.
2. Each turn produces 1 ATP, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
3. A cytochrome is a molecular electron carrier involved in oxidative phosphorylation.
Term
1. When and where does oxidative phosphorylation occur?
2. Does the electron transport chain require oxygen?
3. T/F The electron transport chain generates a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
Definition
1. At the inner mitochondrial membrane during the electron transport stage of cellular respiration.
2. Yes, the final acceptor of the electrons is O2, which then forms water.
3. True.
Term
1. Where does glycolysis occur?
2. Where does the CAC occur?
3. T/F If glucose is unavailable, the body can use carbohydrates, fats, and proteins to create energy?
Definition
1. Cytoplasm
2. Inner mitochondrial matrix
3. True
Term
1. What are the four stages of the cell cycle?
2. When do a cell's chromosomes replicate?
3. What is the order of the four stages of mitosis?
4. What is a chromatid?
Definition
1. The four stages of the cell cycle are: G1, S, G2, and M.
2. S(synthesis) stage of INTERPHASE.
3. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.
4. A chromatid is one half of a replicated chromosome. Sister chromatids are attached by the centromere.
Term
1. In which mitotic phase does spindle formation occur?
2. In which mitotic phase are the chromosomes lined up in the equatorial plane?
3. When does cytokinesis occur?
4. When do chromosomes separate?
Definition
Prophase
Metaphase
Telophase
Anaphase
Term
By looking at a diagram of the insides of a cell can you name the four mitotic stages?
Definition
Term
1. How many chromosomes are in the human diploid cell?
2. Human haploid cell?
3. What are the four types of asexual reproduction?
Definition
1. 46
2. 23
3. Binary fission, budding, mitosis, and parthenogenesis.
Term
What is parthenogenesis?
Definition
Development of an egg into an embryo without fertilization.
Term
1. T/F Homologous chromosomes code for different traits.
2. In what phase of meiosis would one find a tetrad?
3. T/F Synapsis and crossing over result in genetic recombination
Definition
1. False, they code for the same trait.
2. Prophase 1
3. True
Term
Name the four different structures of the male reproductive tract
Definition
Seminiferous tubules (testes), epididymis, vas deferens, and urethra.
USE SEVEN UP
Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas Deferens
Ejaculatory Duct
Nothing
Urethra
Penis
Term
1. Starting with the ovary, name the different structures of the female reproductive tract.
2. What is a polar body?
3. T/F Dizygotic (fraternal) twins are identical.
Definition
1. Ovary, oviduct (fallopian tube), uterus, cervix, vagina.
2. Small cell that results from unequal distribution of cytoplasm during meiosis.
3. False, monozygotic twins are identical.
Term
1. Order the following embryonic stages:
blastula, neurula, morula, gastrula, zygote.
2. What is differentiation?
3. What are the 3 primary germ layers?
Definition
1. zygote, morula, blastula, gastrula, neurula.
2. Specialization of cells that occurs during development.
3. Ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm.
Term
Match the following structures with the stage of development in which they first appear.
A. Blastula B. Gastrula C.Neurula
1. Inner cell mass.
2. Archenteron
3. Notochord
4. Trophoblast
5. Blastopore
6. Neural fold
Definition
1.a (inner cell mass/blastula)
2.b (Archenteron/gastrula)
3.c (Notochord/neurula)
4.a (Trophoblast/blastula)
5. b (Blastopore/gastrula)
6. c (Neural fold/neurula)
Term
1. What structures arise from ectoderm?
2. Endoderm?
3. Mesoderm?
4. What is the placenta and umbilical cord responsible for? (3)
Definition
1. Ectoderm- integument, lens of eye, and nervous system.
2. Endoderm- epithelial linings of digestive and respiratory tracts, parts of liver, pancreas, thyroid, and bladder.
3. Mesoderm- musculoskeletal system, circulatory system, excretory system, and gonads.
4. Fetal respiration, nutrition, and waste removal.
Term
1. T/F Adult hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than fetal hemoglobin.
2. What is the function of the ductus venosus?
3. Foramen ovale?
4. Ductus arteriosus?
Definition
1. False, fetal does.
2. Ductus venosus- shunts blood away from the fetal liver.
3. Foramen ovale- diverts blood away from the pulmonary arteries and into the left atrium.
4. Ductus arteriosus- shunts blood directly from the pulmonary artery into the aorta.
Term
1. (T/F)The allantois and yolk sac for the basis of the umbilical cord.
2. Form what structure does the placenta originate
Definition
T
The placenta originates from the chorion.
Term
1. What are the functions of the skeleton (3).
2. What are the two major components of the skeleton?
3. What are the two types of bone?
Definition
1. Physical support, protection of delicate organs (brain), and source of blood- bone marrow.
2. Cartilage and bone
3. Compact and spongy
Term
1. What is the function of the osteoclast?
2. Osteoblast?
Definition
1. Bone reabsorption- breaks it done.
2. Bone formation- bone builder
Term
Given a diagram, name the components of an osteon (Haversian system) (3)
Definition
Lamellae, osteon, and haversian canal.
Term
1. Endochondral ossification is the replacement of what with what?
2. What is intramembranous ossification?
3. What is the function of the ligament?
Definition
1. Cartilage with bone.
2. Transformation of mesenchymal tissue into bone.
3. Connect bone to bone and strengthen joints.
Term
1. What are the 3 distinct types of muscle in mammals?
2. What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
3. What are thick filaments made of, and what are thin filaments made of?
Definition
1. Skeletal, cardiac, and smoot.
2. a modified endoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium ions (in muscle cell).
3. Thick = myosin (because its mighty)
Thin= actin (because its acting)
Term
Name the parts of a sarcomere... (5)
Definition
Z-line
H zone
I band
M line
A band
Term
1. During contraction, what happens to the width of the A-band?
2. During contraction, what happens to the H zone and I band?
3. What is released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum to initiate muscle contraction?
4. What must the sarcoplasmic reticulum uptake so that relaxation occurs?
Definition
1. A band is always constant
2. H zone and I band both contract and decrease in length. When you see a hot girl/guy you say HI and flex which shortens your muscles haha.. But since your an Ass they don't do anything.
3. Ca+2
4. Ca+2
Term
1. A muscle fiber undergoes what kind of response?
2. Which component of the nervous system innervates smooth muscle?
3. Which types of muscles are striated?
4. Which muscles are under involuntary control?
Definition
1. "all or nothing"
2. Smooth muscle is innervated by the ANS
3. Cardiac and skeletal muscle are striated
4. Smooth and cardiac muscles
Term
1. Which types of muscles display myogenic activity?
2. What is the role of calcium in the initiation of sarcomere contraction?
3. Which compound is needed to release myosin from its binding site on actin.
Definition
1. Cardiac and smooth muscle display myogenic activity. Refers to rhythmic activity since these muscles don't really need neural input to contract. Just think of what myogenic activity is, and what someone would look like if they had rhythmic skeletal contractions.
2. Calcium binds with troponin, which causes a conformational shift in tropomyosin.
3. ATP is needed to release myosin from its binding site on actin.
Term
1. Name the structures of the human alimentary canal (in order).
2. What enzyme does saliva contain and what does it digest?
Definition
1. Oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestines, and large intestines.
2. Saliva has salivary amylase which digests starch (carbohydrates).
Term
1. What is peristalsis?
2. What two sphincters separate the stomach from the rest of the alimentary canal?
3. What are the three segments of the small intestine?
Definition
1. Peristalsis is def. as wave-like contractions that propel food through the digestive tract.
2. The cardiac sphincter and the pyloric sphincter.
3. The small intestine is divided into the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. D J Intestine
Term
1. What segment(s) of the small intestine is/are primarily responsible for digestion?
2. Which segment(s) of the small intestine is/are primarily responsible for absorption?
3. Why is pancreatic juice basic (high pH)?
4. Where is bile manufactured, stored, and what type of digestion does it facilitate in?
Definition
1. Duodenum is primarily for digestion.
2. The jejunum and ileum are primarily for absorption.
3. Pancreatic juice has bicarbonate ion which serves to neutralize the acidic chyme from the stomach. A basic pH is necessary because pancreatic enzymes work best at a slightly basic pH.
4. Bile is manufactured in the liver, stored in the gall bladder, and facilitates lipid digestion.
Term
1. What are the three components of the large intestines?
2. What is the primary function of the large intestines?
3. Where does protein digestion begin? Lipid digestion?
4. Which component of the nervous system inhibits digestion? Which promotes it?
Definition
1. The large intestine is divided into the cecum, colon, rectum. See cole red. (Cee col red)
2. Large intestines = water and salt absorption.
3. Protein digestion begins in the stomach and lipid digestion begins in the small intestines.
4. The PNS stimulations and the sympathetic NS inhibits digesiton.
Term
Match the following enzymes with their site of function and the nutrient they digest:
1. Chymotrypsin a. Mouth
2. Pepsin b. Stomach
3. Lipase c. small intestine
4. Sucrase d. large intestine
5. Trypsin e. starch
6. Caboxypeptidase f. protein
7. Maltase g. lipid
8. Salivary amylase
Definition
1. c,f
2. b,f
3. c,g
4. c,e
5. c,f
6. c,f
7. c,e
8. a,e
Term
1. Correctly sequence the following structures of the respiratory tract:

alveoli, trachea, nares, bronchi, pharynx, bronchioles, larynx
Definition
1. Nares, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli.
Term
1. Which part of the brain controls breathing?
Definition
1. Has the coolest name
medulla oblangata
Term
1. What does the diaphragm do during exhalation and inhalation?
Definition
1. The diaphragm relaxes during exhalation and contracts during inhalation. Remember, the diaphragm is C shaped where the bendy part goes up toward the lungs. So when it contracts which brings the bendy part down, it "pulls" or opens the lungs up creating negative pressure and bringing air in.
Term
1. Do all arteries carry oxygenated blood and all veins carry deoxygenated blood? If not, which ones are the odd ones?
2. The right side of the heart pumps blood into what circulation while the left pumps blood into what circulation? (systemic or pulmonary)
3. Starting with the right atrium, trace the path of blood flow throughout the body. Huge question... there's 14 structures.
Definition
1. No, pulmonary arteries and umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood while pulmonary veins and umbilical veins carry oxygenated blood.
2. Right side pumps deoxy. blood into the pulmonary artery which is pulmonary circulation. The left side pumps it directly into the aorta which is systemic circulation.
3. Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, pulmonary capillaries, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava.
Term
1. Which valve separates the right atrium and right ventricle?
2. Which valve separates the left atrium and right ventricle?
3. Are the ventricles contracting or relaxing when the heart undergoes systole? Diastole?
Definition
1. Tricuspid
2. Mitral valve
3. Diastole= relaxation and systole= contraction
Term
1. What is plasma?
2. What are the cellular components of blood?
Definition
1. Plasma is the liquid component of blood made of mostly water.
2. The cellular components of blood are erythrocytes (RBC), leukocytes (WBC), and platelets.
Term
1. What is the function of a macrophage?
Definition
A macrophage phagocytizes foreign matter
Term
1. What are the four blood types?
2. Which blood type is considered to be the universal donor? Universal recipient?
3. What is the Rh factor? How can the Rh factor complicate pregnancy?
Definition
1. Four blood types are A, B, AB, O.
2. Type O is universal donor and AB is universal recipient.
3. The Rh factor is an antigen on the surface of RBC's. Following the birth of an Rh+ child, a Rh- mother develops antibodies to the Rh factor. These antibodies can attack the blood cells of any future Rh+ fetuses carried by the mother.
Term
1. Do platelets play a key role in the immune response?
2. Which proteins are essential for proper clotting (2)?
Definition
1. No, they are key players for clot formation.
2. Thrombin and fibrin are essential for clot formation.
Term
1. What is the function of immunoglobins (antibodies)?
Definition
1. Antibodies attract other cells that can phagocytize an antigen or cause the antigens to clump together.
Term
1. Are skin, ciliated mucosa, macrophages, and inflammatory response considered specific or nonspecific defense mechanisms?
2. What happens to interstitial fluid that doesn't diffuse into a capillary?
Definition
1. Nonspecific
2. Excess interstitial fluid is picked up by the lymphatic system and returned to the circulatory system.
Term
1. Define homeostasis.
2. What are the primary homeostatic organs in mammals?
Definition
1. The maintenance of a stable internal environment.
2. The primary homeostatic organs are the kidneys, liver, large intestine, and skin.
Term
1. What are the three regions of the kidney?
2. A nephron is situated such that the loop of Henle runs through the medulla.
Definition
1. The three regions are the pelvis, medulla, and cortex.
2. The loop of Henle runs through the medulla.
Term
Name the parts of a nephron given a diagram.
Definition
Term
1. What is the primary purpose of the kidney?
2. Where are amino acids, glucose, and vitamins reabsorbed in the nephron?
3. Where in the loop of Henle does water passively diffuse out?
4. Does water passively diffuse into the ascending limb?
Definition
1. Kidneys regulate salt and water concentration in the blood.
2. Amino acids, glucose, and vitamins are reabsorbed into proximal convoluted tubule.
3. Water passively diffuses out of the descending limb.
4. No, the ascending limb is impermeable to water.
Term
1. What hormone stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and H2O from the distal tubule and collecting duct.
Definition
Aldosterone
Term
1. Would high levels of aldosterone result in concentrated or dilute urine?
2. How would low levels of aldosterone affect blood pressure?
3. Would high levels of ADH (vasopressin) result in concentrated or dilute urine?
Definition
1. High levels of aldosterone results in concentrated urine.
2. Low levels of aldosterone leads to reduced blood plasma volume and therefore reduced blood pressure. Just think... an increase in aldosterone leaves more water in the blood which would increase the volume, therefore increasing pressure.
3. High levels of ADH result in concentrated urine.

Vasopressin and ADH are "equivalent"
Term
1. Where and how does ADH affect the nephron?
2. Urine leaves the kidney via what structure and leaves the bladder via what structure?
3. Is urine hypertonic or hypotonic to blood?
4. What are some of the functions of the liver?
Definition
1. ADH makes the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct more permeable to H2O.
2. urine leaves the kidney via the ureter and leaves the bladder via the urethra.
3. Urine is hypertonic to blood.
4. Liver functions include regulation of blood glucose, detoxification of toxins, beta-oxidation of fatty acids, destruction of old red blood cells.
Term
1. Does the large intestine function as an excretory organ by getting rid of excess salts?
2. What layer of skin are sweat glands, sense organs, and blood vessels located?
Definition
1. Yes
2. They are located in the dermis.
Term
1. What is the difference between an endocrine and exocrine gland?
2. The anterior pituitary is regulated in part by what other endocrine gland?
Definition
1. An endocrine gland secretes their hormones directly into the blood stream. Exocrine glands secrete substances that are transported by ducts.
2. The hypothalmus regulates the anterior pituitary.
Term
Name all hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland...(6)
Definition
Growth hormone (GH), prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).
Term
1. Where does GH promote growth (2)
2. What is the function of prolactin?
3. What is the target gland of ACTH?
4. What is the function of TSH?
5. Are FSH and LH only secreted by females?
Definition
1. bone and muscle.
2. Prolatctin stimulates the production of breast milk.
3. ACTH acts on the adrenal cortex.
4. TSH causes the thyroid to uptake iodine and produce thyroid hormone.
5. No, males produce and secrete these too.
Term
1. Name the hormones that are synthesized by the posterior pituitary.
Definition
1. None, pp sucks
Term
1. What two hormones are released by the posterior pituitary and what are their functions?
2. The hypothalmus regulates what two glands and what two ways does it do this?
Definition
1. Oxytocin increases the strength of contractions during childbirth. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH, vasopressin) promotes the absorption of water in the nephron.
2. The hypothalmus regulates both the anterior and posterior pituitary through hormone secretion and neurosecretory cells.
Term
1. Name the hormones secreted by the thyroid gland.
2. How do thyroid hormones affect metabolism?
Definition
1. Thyroid gland secretes thyroxine and triiodothyronine (these are considered thyroid hormones), as well as calcitonin.
2. Thyroid hormones increase metabolism.
Term
1. How does calcitonin affect the level of Ca+2 in blood plasma.
2. What hormone does the parathyroid gland produce and what is its function?
Definition
1. Calcitonin decreases blood plasma calcium.
2. Parathyroid secretes parathyroid hormone, which serves to increase blood plasma calcium.
Term
1. Name the three types of hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex.
Definition
1. Three types of hormones are glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and cortical sex hormones.
Term
1. What is the function of cortisol?
2. What important mineralocorticoid is released by the adrenal cortex?
Definition
1. Cortisol is a glucocorticoid that increases the blood's glucose level.
2. Aldosterone is an important mineralocorticoid released by the adrenal cortex.
Term
1. Which endocrine gland secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine?
2. These two hormones slow down what body function and increase what rate?
3. Epinephrines effects:
____________ heart rate
____________ blood glucose level
____________blood supply to brain, muscle, and heart
____________digestion and excretion
Definition
1. The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine.
2. They slow down digestion and increase the basal metabolic rate.
3.
increase heart rate
increase blood glucose level
increase blood supply to brain, muscle, and heart
decrease digestion and excretion
Term
1. Which endocrine organ secretes insulin and glucagon?
2. How does glucagon affect blood glucose levels?
3. How does insulin affect blood glucose levels?
4. What is the term for too much insulin?
Definition
1. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon.
2. Glucagon increases blood glucose levels.
3. Insulin decreases blood glucose levels.
4. Hypoglycemia.
Term
1. Which two hormones are secreted by the ovaries?
2. What are the four phases of the menstrual cycle?
3. What is the corpus luteum?
Definition
1. The ovaries secrete estrogen and progesterone.
2. The four phases of the menstrual cycle are follicular phase, ovulation, luteal phase, and menstruation.
3. The corpus luteum develops from a ruptured follicle in the ovary and secretes estrogen and progesterone.
Term
1. What secretes testosterone?
2. What secretes melatonin?
Definition
Testes
pineal gland secretes melatonin.
Term
1. What is the function of a dendrite?
2. What is the function of an axon?
3. What is the composition of a myelin sheath?
4. What protein complex is responsible for the resting potential (-70mV) of a neuron?
Definition
1. A dendrite conductions nerve impulses towards the cell body.
2. An axon conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body.
3. In the CNS, myelin is composed of the membranes of oligodendrocytes. In the PNS, myelin is composed of the membranes of Schwann cells.
4. The Na+ - K+ pump is responsible for the neurons resting potential.
Term
1. In a resting neuron, is the Na+ concentration higher or lower inside the cell compared to the outside of the cell.
2. Do Na+ ions rush into or out of the cell during depolarization?
3. Do K+ ions rush into our out of the cell during repolarization?
4. During what period can a neuron not conduct/respond to stimulus?
5. What is hyperpolarization?
Definition
1. Na+ concentration is higher outside a resting neuron.
2. Na+ ions rush into a cell during depolarization.
3. During repolarization, K+ ions rush out of the cell.
4. The neuron is unable to respond to stimulus during the refractory period.
5. Hyperpolarization refers to a state where the potential across the membrane is more negative than the resting potential.
Term
1. What is saltatory conduction?
2. What happens when an action potential reaches a synapse in a mammal?
3. What is the function of a sensory neuron? Is this efferent or afferent?
4. What is the function of a motor neuron? Afferent or efferent?
Definition
1. Saltatory conduction is the "jumping" of an action potential between the unmyelinated Nodes of Ranvier.
2. When an AP reaches a synapse, the electrical signal causes the release of neurotransmitters from the presynatpic membrane into the synapse.
3. A sensory neuron carries impulses from sensory organs to the brain and spinal cord. Afferent. From muscles/glands to brain.
4. A motor neuron transmits impulses from the brain and spinal cord to muscles or glands. Efferent. Goes from brain back to muscles/glands.
Term
1. Which type of neuron serves as a link between motor and sensory neurons?
2. What are the two major subsystems of the nervous system?
Definition
1. Interneurons (associate neurons) link sensory and motor neurons.
2. Two major subsystems of the nervous system are the CNS and PNS.
Term
1. What are the components of the central nervous system?
2. What about the PNS?
Definition
1. CNS comprises the brain and spinal cord.
2. PNS comprises the ANS and SNS (aka everything else)
Term
1. What is the largest part of the human brain?
Definition
Largest part is the cerebral cortex
Term
1. What is the function of the cerebral cortex?
2. What is the function of the hypothalmus?
3. What are the two main functions of the midbrain?
Definition
1. The cerebral cortex processes and integrates sensory input and motor response, and controls memory.
2. The hypothalmus is responsible for visceral functions such as hunger, thirst, and sex drive.
3. The midbrain is the relay center for visual and auditory impulses.
Term
1. What are the components of the hindbrain?
2. What is the function of the cerebellum?
3. What part of the brain controls the autonomic activities?
4. What are the four regions of the spinal cord?
Definition
1. The hindbrain is composed of the cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata.
2. The cerebellum is responsible for coordination.
3. The medulla oblongata controls autonomic activities.
4. The four regions of the spinal cord are cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral.
Term
1. What houses the cell bodies of sensory root fibers?
2. What is the hierarchy of the divisions of the PNS?
Definition
1. Dorsal root ganglia.
2. PNS breaks down to motor and sensory.
Motor breaks down to Somatic and Automatic.
Automatic breaks down to sympathetic and parasympathetic.
Term
1. Which part of the nervous system readies the body for "fight or flight"
2. What is the function of the parasympathetic division of the nervous system?
3. Which division of the nervous system inhibits digestion?
Definition
1. The sympathetic nervous system readies the body for fight or flight.
2. The parasympathetic division opposes the sympathetic division by SLOWING down the body and conserving energy. PARA= REST AND DIGEST
3. The sympathetic division inhibits digestion.
Term

Name the following components of the eye.

Cornea, iris, retina, pupil, lens, aqueous humor, ciliary body, optic nerve, fovea, sclera, choroid, vitreous humor.

[image]

Definition

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Term
1. Which type of photoreceptor cell is specialized for color vision? Which type is specialized for low light conditions?
2. What is the fovea?
3. What are the components of the middle ear?
4. What are the components of the inner ear?
Definition
1. Cones are for color and rods are for night vision.
2. The fovea is the region of the retina with a high density of cones.
3. The middle ear is composed of the tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, and stapes.
4. The inner ear is composed of the cochlea and organ of Corti.
Term
1. What are alleles?
2. Define genotype?
3. Define phenotype?
4. Define homozygous?
5. Define heterozygous?
Definition
1. Alles are different forms of the same gene. Alleles occupy the same position on homologous chromosomes.
2. Genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an individual.
3. Phenotype refers to the physical manifestation of an individuals genotype.
4. Homozygous individuals have two copies of the same allele for a given trait.
5. Heterozygous individuals have two different alleles for a given trait.
Term
1. Summarize Mendel's First Law, which is also known as?
2. Summarize Mendel's Second Law, which is also known as?
Definition
1. The law of segregation- states that alleles segregate during meiosis specifically:
- Genes exist in alternative forms (alleles)
- An individual inherits alleles for each trait, one from each parent.
- The two alleles segregate during meiosis.
- If two different alleles are present, only one will be fully expressed. DOMinance.
2. The law of independent assortment states that alleles of unlinked genes assort independently during meiosis.
Term
Given P= dominant (purple) and p= recessive (white)
1. Whats the phenotypic ratio of a PPxpp cross?
2. Whats the phenotypic ratio of a PpxPp cross?
3. Whats the phenotypic ratio of a Ppxpp cross?
4. Whats the genotypic ratio of a Ppxpp cross?
5. Whats the genotypic ratio of a PpxPp cross?
Definition
1. PPxpp = 100% purple
2. PpxPp = 75% purple: 25% white
3. Ppxpp= 50% purple: 50% white
4. Ppxpp = 50% Pp: 50% pp
5. PpxPp = 25% PP: 50% Pp: 25% pp
Term
1. Assuming codominance, what happens to the phenotype in the presence of two dominant alleles?
Definition
1. The phenotype of each allele is simultaneously displayed. (ex. type AB blood)
Term
1. Red flowers crossed with white flowers yield pink flowers. What kind of dominance is portrayed in this example?
Definition
Incomplete dominance.
Term
1. In humans, are most sex-linked genes located on the Y chromosome or the X cs?
2. What percentage of daughters will inherit their father's sex-linked gene?
3. What % of sons will inherit their father's sex-linked gene?
4. What % of sons will inherit their mother's sex-linked gene (assuming heterozygous mother)?
Definition
1. Most sex-linked genes are on the X chromosome.
2. 100% of daughters will inherit their father's sex-linked gene.
3. 0% of sons will inherit their father's sex-linked gene.
4. 50% of sons will inherit their mother's sex-linked genes.
Term
1. Can females express a sex-linked recessive trait?
2. What is nondisjunction?
Definition
1. A female carrier and a male with the recessive trait will have a 25% chance of giving birth to a female child with the recessive trait.
2. Nondisjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes (or sister chromatids) to separate properly during cellular reproduction.
Term
1. Name the four nitrogenous bases in DNA.
2. Which are purines and which are pyramidines?
3. What is the base-pairing in DNA? How many bonds hold the bases together?
4. Name three differences between RNA and DNA.
Definition
1. Adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine.
2. The purines are adenine and guanine. The pyrimidines are cytosine and thymine.
3. Adenine- thymine ( 2 hydrogen bonds)
Cytosine- guanine ( 3 hydrogen bonds)
4. RNA uses ribose instead of deoxyribose
RNA replaces thymine with URACIL
RNA is single stranded
Term
1. In what direction does DNA synthesis occur?
2. What are the three types of RNA, and what are their functions?
Definition
1. DNA synthesis occurs in the 5' to 3' direction.
2. Messenger RNA (mRNA)- contains the codons for peptide chain synthesis.
Transfer RNA- (tRNA)- transports amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis.
Ribosomoal RNA- (rRNA)- structural component of ribosomes.
Term
1. What is transcription?
2. What is translation?
3. What is an exon? An intron?
4. What is a codon?
5. What is an anticodon?
Definition
1. Transcription is the process whereby mRNA is synthesized from a DNA template.
2. Translation- process whereby proteins are synthesized from a mRNA template.
3. An exon= coding sequence on a gene. An intron is a non-coding sequence on a gene.
4. A codon is a 3-base sequence on mRNA that codes for a specific amino acid.
5. An anticodon is a 3-base sequence on tRNA that is complementary to a mRNA codon.
Term
1. What are the three stages of polypeptide synthesis?
2. What are the three types of base pair mutations that can occur during protein synthesis?
Definition
1. The three stages of polypeptide synthesis are initiation, elongation, and termination.
2. Types of base-pair mutations are substitutions, insertions, and deletions.
Term
1. What is a retrovirus?
2. What is a prophage (provirus)
Definition
1. A retrovirus is an RNA virus that codes for the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which uses the RNA as a template for DNA synthesis.
2. A prophage is a bacterial virus that has integrated into its host cell genome.
Term
1. Describe the lytic and lysogenic cycles.
2. What are the three mechanisms by which bacteria can increase genetic variability?
Definition
1. Bacteriophage infection results in either a lytic or a lysogenic cycle. A lytic cycle results in the production of new progeny that cause the cell to burst or lyse derrrr. A lysogenic cycle results in incorporation of the viral DNA into the bacterial DNA where it remains inactive. A lysogenic cycle may progress to a lytic cycle.
1. Transformation- incorporation of foreign chromosome fragments.
2. Conjugation- transfer of genetic material between two bacteria.
3. Transduction- virus carries DNA between two bacteria.
Term
1. What is an operon?
2. What is an inducible system?
3. What is a repressible system?
Definition
1. An operon is a gene that regulates (bacterial) transcription.
2. Inducible- system requires the presence of an inducer for transcription to occur. DUH
3. A repressible system is in a constant state of transcription unless a corepressor is present to inhibit transcription.
Term
1. Lamarck's theory of evolution is based on the what?
2. (T/F) Lamarckian evolution holds true in a number of different circumstances.
3. Define fitness according to Darwin.
Definition
1. Lamarcks theory of evolution is based on the inheritance of acquired characteristics.
2. False, acquired characteristcs cannot be inherited.
3. Fitness is the ability of an organism to mate and produce fertile offspring.
Term
1. What are homologous structures?
2. What are analogous structures?
3. What are vestigial structures?
Definition
1. Homologous structures are similar in origin but not function. (Whale flippers/human arms)
2. Analogous structures are similar in function but not in origin. (Insect wings/bird wings)
3. A vestigial structure is a remnant structure that has lost its ancestral function. (Tail bone in man)
Term
Given the Hardy-Weinberg equation: p^2 + 2pq +q^2 = 1
1. What does p^2 represent?
2. What does 2pq represent?
3. What does q^2 represent?
4. What does p + q = ?
Definition
1. p^2 = frequency of homozygous dominants
2. 2pq= frequency of heterozygotes
3. q^2 = frequency of homozygous recessives.
4. p + q = 1
Term
What are the 5 necessary conditions for the Hardy-Weinberg equation to hold true?
Definition
1. There are no mutations that affect the gene pool.
2. The population must be VERY large
3. Genes in a population are EQUALLY successful at reproducing.
4. Mating occurs RANDOMLY
5. There is NO NET MIGRATION of individuals.
Term
1. How does genetic drift differ from gene flow?
2. (T/F) Stabilizing selection maintains a well adapted uniform character in a population.
3. How does disruptive selection affect the phenotype of a population?
4. How does directional selection affect the phenotype of a population?
Definition
1. Genetic drift refers to changes in the gene pool due to CHANCE. Gene flow refers to the changing of a gene pool due to the MIGRATION of individuals.
2. True
3. Disruptive selection favors the phenotypical extremes, leading to the expression of two or more phenotypic forms.
4. Directional selection favors the expression of ONE phenotypical extreme.
Term
1. When are two populations descending from the same ancestral stock considered to be different species?
2. What is adaptive radiation?
Definition
1. Two populations are considered to be different species when they can no longer interbreed and produce viable offspring.
2. Adaptive radiation is the emergence of a number of distinct lineages from a single ancestral species. The different lineages usually result when a group begins to exploit a different niche.
Term
1. Describe convergent evolution?
2. Describe parallel evolution?
3. Describe divergent evolution?
Definition
1. Convergent evolution refers to the independent developments of similar characteristics by non-related groups.
2. Parallel evolution refers to the process whereby related groups independently develop similar characteristics due to analogous environmental pressures.
3. Divergent evolution refers to the process whereby related groups independently develop dissimilar characteristics.
Term
1. Photosynthetic organisms use CO2 and H2O to produce what three things?
2. In what organelle does photosynthesis occur? What photosynthetic pigment is used?
3. What structures let gases in and out of the plant? What regulates the opening and closing of these structures?
4. What is the net reaction for photosynthesis?
Definition
1. Photosynthetic organisms use CO2 and H2O to produce carbohydrates, proteins, lipids.
2. Photosynthesis occurs in Chloroplasts and they use the pigment Chlorophyll.
3. Stomates let gases in and out of the plant while guard cells regulate the opening and closing.
4. The net reaction is...
6 CO2 + 12 H2O + light energy = C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O.
Term
1. What happens during the light cycle?
2. What happens during the dark (Calvin) cycle?
3. Once the light cycle has shut down, can sugars still be synthesized and if so how?
4. What molecule provides the reducing power needed during the synthesis of sugar?
Definition
1. Light energy is used to produce ATP through photophosphorylation and photolysis (splitting of water), while forming O2 and NADPH.
2. ATP and NADPH formed during the light reaction are used to fix CO2 into organic material. Light is not required, but the dark cycle usually occurs during the day, when the light reaction provides ATP and NADPH.
3. The Dark (Calvin) cycle can continue in the absence of light which can synthesize sugars.
4. NADPH
Term
1. What type of digestive system do annelids employ?
2. What type of digestive system do arthropods employ?
3. What type of digestive system do coelenterates employ?
4. What type of digestive system do protozoans employ?
Definition
1. 1. A one-way, two opening digestive tract. (Includes worms)
2. Arthropods exhibit every type of feeding mode. They include carnivores, herbivores, detritus feeders, filter feeders, and parasites, and there are specializations within these major categories. The notecard said "a one way, two opening digestive tract (worms)" but who knows.
3. Extracellular digestion in the gastrovascular cavity (hydra)
4. Intracellular digestion
Term
1. What type of respiratory system do annelids employ?
2. What type of respiratory system do arthropods employ?
3. What type of respiratory system do coelenterates employ?
4. What type of respiratory system do protozoans employ?
Definition
1. Gas exchange via diffusion through moist skin.
2. Gas is exchanged through respiratory tracheae which branch extensively throughout the body. Air enters and leaves the trachea via openings on the surface called spiracles (grasshopper)
3. Gas exchange via diffusion through individual cell membranes contacting aqueous environment.
4. Gas exchange via diffusion through individual cell membranes contacting aqueous environment.
Term
1. What type of circulatory system do annelids employ?
2. What type of circulatory system do arthropods employ?
3. What type of circulatory system do coelenterates employ?
4. What type of circulatory system do protozoans employ?
Definition
1. Closed, simple circulatory system
2. Open circulatory system
3. Diffusion, cyclosis
4. Diffusion, cyclosis

Cyclosis is the circulation of cytoplasm or cell organelles, such as food vacuoles in some protozoans
Term
1. What type of nervous system do annelids employ?
2. What type of nervous system do arthropods employ?
3. What special structure for the nervous system do Coelenterates employ?
Definition
1. A primitive central nervous system with a brain composed of fused ganglia.
2. A nervous system similar to that of annelids, but with SPECIALIZED SENSE organs.
3. Coelenterates have a nerve net.
Term
1. What is asexual production?
2. (T/F) Binary fission (characteristic of what organism ?) entails an equal division of cytoplasm as well as nuclear contents.
3. (T/F) Budding entails an equal division of cytoplasm as well as nuclear contents.
4. What is parthenogenesis?
Definition
1. Any reproductive process that does NOT involve the fusion of gametes.
2. True, prokaryotes.
3. False, budding is an asexual process characteristic of yeast in which there is an equal division of genetic material and an UNEQUAL division of CYTOPLASM. The daughter cell may pinch off and live independently, or remain connected and live as part of the larger colony.
4. Parthenogensis is the development of an egg in the absence of fertilization, resulting in a haploid organism; sometimes occurs in frogs and I believe that the eggs we eat.
Term
1. What type of excretory system do annelids employ?
2. What type of excretory system do arthropods employ?
3. In Coelenterates, what two substances diffuse, and where do they diffuse?
4. In protozoans, what two substances diffuse, and where do they diffuse?
Definition
1. Annelids excrete urea through nephridia in skin.
2. Arthropods produce uric acid in the Malpighian tubules and eliminate it through their rectum.
3. Coelenterates diffuse both ammonia and CO2 directly into the environment.
4. Protozoans diffuse both ammonia and CO2 directly into the environment ALSO.
Term
1. Place the following objects in the order in which they exist in the energy pyramid, from the top to the bottom:
Secondary consumers, Producers, Sunlight, Detrivores, and Primary consumers.
2. What are omnivores?
3. What role do animals have in the nitrogen cycle?
4. Where does nitrogen fixation occur?
Definition
1. Sunlight, producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, detrivores.
2. Omnivores are heterotrophs that consume both plants and animals. HUMANS
3. The wastes and dead remains of plants and animals provide the ammonia (NH3) used by nitrifying bacteria to produce nitrites and nitrogen dioxide (NO2) and used by denitrifying bacteria to produce free nitrogen (N2) in the atmosphere.
4. Bacteria on the roots of legumes are responsible for nitrogen fixation.
Term
1. Do chemosynthetic bacteria rely on photosynthesis for survival?
2. What are the three directly biological sources of CO2 in the environment?
3. Place the following in order of levels of biological organization, from smallest to largest: biosphere, community, ecosystem, organism, and population.
4. What are the characteristics of the population growth curve that occurs most often in nature?
Definition
1. Chemosynthetic bacteria dont rely on photosynthesis.
2. Respiration, photosynthesis, and the decomposition of plant and animal materials by bacteria and decay.
3. Organism, population, community, ecosystem, and biosphere.
4. The logistic growth curve is an S-Shaped curve that plateaus at a value known as K (the carrying capacity), the maximum number of organisms the environment can support as a result of the limited amount of resources.
Term
1. (T/F) In a commensalistic relationship, both organisms involved benefit. Explain.
2. What is the principal behind ecological succession?
3. What are the characteristics of the tundra?
4. Which is the environment with the greatest diversity of plants and animals?
Definition
1. False, in a commensalistic relationship, while the non-host organism involved benefits, the host itself is neither helped nor harmed.
2. Organisms that live in a given environment alter the environment in ways that make living conditions less favorable for itself and more favorable for the community that succeeds it.
3. Permanent permafrost, little water, located at or near poles, small plants, caribou, polar bears, Arctic foxes, and hares.
4. Tropical rain forest.
Term
1. What is a fixed action pattern?
2. When can imprinting occur?
3. In classical conditioning, in order to elicit the conditioned response from the conditioned stimulus, what must be presented along with the conditioned stimulus during the conditioning period?
4. (T/F) Operant conditioning may be used only to make an organism avoid a certain type of behavior. Explain.
Definition
1. A complex, coordinated, innate behavioral response to specific patterns of stimulation; the sign stimulus/releaser elicits the highly stereotyped behavior that must be completed once begun.
2. Imprinting can only take place during a brief critical period.
3. In classical conditioning, the combination of presenting the conditioned stimulus along with the unconditioned stimulus (in Pavlov's case, the bell along with the meat) during the conditioning period elicits the conditioned response (in Pavlov's case, salivation) later on.
4. False. Operant conditioning may be utilized to make an organism repeat or avoid a certain type of behavior, depending on whether that behavior is associated with a reward or punishment, respectively.
Term
Classical conditioning
Define:
• Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS)-
• Unconditioned Response(UCR)-
• Conditioned Stimulus(CS)-
• Conditioned Response(CR)-
Definition
Unconditioned stimulus- An event that consistently and automatically elicits an unconditioned response.
Unconditioned response- An action that the unconditioned stimulus automatically elicits.
Conditioned stimulus- Formerly the neutral stimulus, having been paired with the unconditioned stimulus, elicits the same response. That response depends upon its consistent pairing with the UCS.
Conditioned Response- The response elicited by the conditioned stimulus due to the training. Usually it closely resembles the UCR.
Term
Meat powder (UCS)
Paired with
Tone (Neutral Stimulus) (Becomes CS)
Salivation (UCR)
Becomes CR when elicited by metronome
Definition
Term
Classical conditioning terms
Acquisition-
Extinction-
Spontaneous recovery-
Stimulus generalization-
Stimulus discrimination-
Definition
• Acquisition- processed where CR is first elicited. Timing is critical
• Extinction – when the learned response disappears because the conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with the unconditioned stimulus.
• Spontaneous recovery – When the response temporary returns after it has been
extinguished
• Stimulus generalization– the classically conditioned response may eventually be elicited not only by the CS but also by new stimuli that are similar to the CS
• Stimulus discrimination – the opposite of stimulus generalization
Term
1. Which layer of a leaf does photosynthesis occur?
2. What are the two types of structures found within a plant stem and what are their respective functions?
3. What are the two types of roots?
4. What happens when the turgor pressure in cells decreases too much?
Definition
1. Photosynthesis occurs in the pallisade layer of the mesophyll of a leaf.
2. Xylem and phloem, which transport water and food respectively. Ph is like F which is food.
3. Taproot and fibrous.
4. The plant will wilt.
Term
1. What are the names of the male and female reproductive organs of a plant and their parts?
2. Where and what type of gametes are formed in male and female plants?
3. How many N are the plant gametes, embryo, and endosperm?
4. What is phototropism?
Definition
1. A flower's male organ is known as the stamen, which consists of the filament- a long stalk-like segment, and the anther- a small sac at the top of the filament.
The flowers female organ is known as the pistil, and consists of the stigma- the sticky surface that catches pollen, the style- the area the pollen tube grows down, and the ovary- eventually forms the fruit and contains seeds called ovules.
2. Pollen is produced in the anther; the embryo sac (containing several nuclei, including two polar nuclei and the egg nucleus) forms in the ovules.
3. Gametes= 1N Embryo=2N and Endosperm=3N
4. Phototropism is the phenomenon in which a plant grows toward its light source.
Term
1. What are the five kingdoms of living organisms?
2. What are the subdivisions used in classifying an organism within a given kingdom?
3. What is the founder effect?
4. Convergent evolution is due to what -ology?
Definition
1. Monera, protista, fungi, plantae, and animalia.
2. Kingdom, phylum, subphylum, class, order, family, genus, species.
3. When a few individuals inhabit an isolated region, the smaller the sample size, the genetic composition of that region is less likely to represent the genetic composition of the larger population that the isolated population is derived from. This type of genetic drift in an isolated group is known as Founder effect.
4. Convergent evolution is due to analogy.
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