Term
| Hepatic Blood Supply is ___% of cardiac output. |
|
Definition
| Hepatic Blood Supply is 25% of cardiac output. |
|
|
Term
| Hepatic Artery supplies ___% of blood and ___% of oxygen to liver at approx. what pressure? |
|
Definition
Hepatic Artery
25% of blood supply
50% Oxygen supply
mean aortic pressure
comes right off aorta and goes directly to liver |
|
|
Term
| Portal Vein supplies ___% of blood and ___% of Oxygen to the liver at approx. what pressure? |
|
Definition
Portal Vein
75% of blood supply
50% of Oxygen supply
6-10mmHg |
|
|
Term
What are the tributaries of the Portal Vein?
T/F Portal HTN causes all of these tributaries to back up/become engorged. |
|
Definition
Inferior Mesenteric Vein
Superior Mesenteric Vein
Splenic Vein (supplied by pancreatic veins)
Gastric Vein
Esophageal Vein
True; this causes things like esophageal varices
|
|
|
Term
| Regulation of hepatic blood flow is designed to do two things: |
|
Definition
Supply adequate oxygen and substrate for the livers intrinsic needs
To allow the liver to serve its purposes for the rest of the body (supplies blood to be "cleaned") |
|
|
Term
Intrinsic Regulation controls _______ in the liver itself and includes 2 mechanisms; List them:
Extrinsic regulation of liver blood flow is controlled by 2 mechanisms: |
|
Definition
Intrinsic regulation controls regional microvasculature in the liver itself
hepatic buffer system
metabolic regulation
neural (mostly SNS)
humoral (epi, glucagon etc) |
|
|
Term
Is there any intrinsic regulation of portal venous flow?
|
|
Definition
| No none; all intrinsic regulation mechanisms occur with hepatic artery flow |
|
|
Term
Hepatic buffer mechanism
Increases _______ flow in response to decreased _______ flow.
Maximum response is ___% increase in ____ flow in response to ___% decrease in ___ flow.
Hepatic buffer response may be diminished or abolished with ______ hypoperfusion or _____.
|
|
Definition
Hepatic buffer mechanism
Increases hepatic artery flow in response to decreased portal vein flow.
Maximum response is 100% increase in hepatic artery flow in response to 50% decrease in portal vein flow.
Hepatic buffer response may be diminished or abolished with splanchnic hypoperfusion or endotoxemia.(splanchnic arteries include all the arteries to the gut structures incl. liver and spleen etc, that then supply the portal vein)
|
|
|
Term
Metabolic Regulation
Decrease portal blood ___ & ___ content or increased ____ cause & increase in ______ flow.
This type of regulation is most active in the _______ state, much less so in the ____ state. |
|
Definition
Metabolic Regulation
Decrease portal blood pH & O2 content or increased PCO2 cause & increase in hepatic artery flow.
This type of regulation is most active in the postprandial state, much less so in the fasted state.
|
|
|
Term
Hepatic Buffer Response
______ is secreted all of the time in the sinusoids and as portal flow decreases then less of this substance is washed out of the liver and thus ________ and this increases blood flow to liver. |
|
Definition
Adenosine is secreted all of the time in the sinusoids and as portal flow decreases then less of this substance is washed out of the liver and thus hepatic arterioles dilate and this increases blood flow to liver.
|
|
|
Term
| When is metabolic regulation most active? |
|
Definition
In the Postprandial state
Less active in the fasted state |
|
|
Term
Extrinsic Regulation - Neural
What is Portal Venous pressure dependent on? |
|
Definition
Dependent on the diff in pressures across the:
Splanchnic arteriolar tone
Portal venules
Post-sinusoidal tone
Hepatic Veins |
|
|
Term
Extrinsic Regulation - Neural
There are _______ receptors in the splanchnic and hepatic arteries etc; but only ______ receptors exist in the portal vein.
So the effect of neural stimulation of the portal vessels causes:(3) |
|
Definition
Extrinsic Regulation - Neural
There are alpha and beta2 receptors in the splanchnic and hepatic arteries etc; but only alpha receptors exist in the portal vein.
Increases vascular tone
Reduced blood flow
Reduced blood volume |
|
|
Term
| List five hormones involved in extrinsic (humoral) regulation of liver blood flow. |
|
Definition
Epiniphrine
Norepinephrine
Glucagon
Angiotensin II
Vasopressin |
|
|
Term
| Hepatic arterial beds contain both...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Portal venous beds contain only....? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Dopamine also has a large effect in the liver.
|
|
Definition
False it is insignificant here
|
|
|
Term
Glucagon produces ________ arteriolar dilation.
It accomplishes this effect by.... |
|
Definition
Glucagon produces long-lasting arteriolar dilation.
antagonizing arterial constriction from other responses |
|
|
Term
| So...if a liver is walking down the street and Angiotensin II jumps out from the bushes...what will happen? |
|
Definition
Marked constriction of arterial & portal vasculature
Reduced mesenteric outflow
Reduced total hepatic blood flow |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of Vasopressin on portal vein blood flow? |
|
Definition
Intense vasoconstriction of splanchnic arterial vessels while decreasing portal venous resistance
Marked decrease in Portal Vein blood flow |
|
|
Term
| Vasopressin can be be given in high doses to reduce portal hypertension to reduce...? |
|
Definition
Esophageal Variceal bleeding
More common tx is Octreotide/sandostatin
(inhibits glucagon's vasodilation effect)
|
|
|
Term
| In hepatic innervation __________ predominate over ______________ control. |
|
Definition
| Sympathetics predominate over Parasympathetics |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of Hepatic SNS stimulation? (3) |
|
Definition
Hepatic vascular resistance increases
Hepatic blood volume decreases
Blood glucose increases
(increased gluconeogenesis, increased glycogenolysis) |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of hepatic parasympathetic innervation? (1) |
|
Definition
Blood glucose decreases
(increases glycogen synthesis, increases glucoses uptake) |
|
|
Term
| How much blood does the liver hold? |
|
Definition
| 10-15% of the total blood volume |
|
|
Term
| Intense sympathetic stimulation produces a rapid reduction in? (2) |
|
Definition
Hepatic Blood Flow
Hepatic Blood Volume |
|
|
Term
| If I need some liver blood like...now, what can you do for me? |
|
Definition
You're in luck!
80% of hepatic blood volume (400-500ml) can be transferred to central circulation within seconds!!! |
|
|
Term
| How do anesthetic agents predispose patients to circulatory decompensation? |
|
Definition
| They suppress the SNS and attenuate the response of transferring hepatic blood volume to central circulation. |
|
|
Term
Impaired ______ responses due to severe liver disease also exacerbates _____ from ______.
|
|
Definition
| Impaired vasoconstrictive responses due to severe liver disease also exacerbates hypotension from hypovolemia |
|
|
Term
| The liver synthesizes all coagulation factors except...? Sing it! |
|
Definition
III - tissue thromboplastin
IV - Ca++
VIII:vWF |
|
|
Term
| What are the vitamin K dependent factors brought to you by the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The synthesis of ______ in the liver modulates platelet producion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are modultors of fibrinolysis and clotting produced by the liver? (3)
The liver is therefore important not only in production of clotting factors, but in modulating their consumption by producing fibrinolysis factors. |
|
Definition
Antithrombin III
Protein C and S
Fibrinolytic Factors (TPA and urokinase) |
|
|
Term
T/F all liver derived coagulation factors have short T1/2 lives?
Which coagulation factor has the shortest half life and what is its 1/2 life? |
|
Definition
True
Factor VII
T1/2 of 4 hours |
|
|
Term
| What may be a useful monitor/test of acute liver failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you've been on Coumadin and I give you Vit K and your PT/INR doesn't normalize; this may indicate __________________? |
|
Definition
| This may indicate underlying hepatic dysfunction |
|
|
Term
The liver synthesizes and secretes 3 endocrine substances:
It biotransforms:
It also inactivates 5 substances: |
|
Definition
Synthesis and secretion of:
IGF - 1
Angiotensinogen
Thrombopoietin
Biotransformation of:
conversion of T4 to T3
Inactivation of: Corticosteroids
Aldosterone
Estrogen, androgens
Insulin
Anti-diuretic hormone |
|
|
Term
Bilirubin is the end product of _________?
____% is derived from Hgb breakdown. |
|
Definition
Heme degradation
75% derived from hemoglobin breakdown |
|
|
Term
What are the steps of bilirubin excretion? (5)
___% of conjugated bilirubin is absorbed in intestine & returns to liver via ______, where it is sent back through bile to small intestine. |
|
Definition
- Bilirubin binds to albumin & is transported to liver
- In liver, Albumin is removed from unconjugated bilirubin
- Then bilirubin is conjugated primarily with glucuronic acid
- Conjugated bilirubin is excreted into bile
- Passes into intestine, where it is converted to urobiliongen and excreted
10% of conjugated bilirubin is absorbed in intestine & returns to liver via portal vein, where it is sent back through bile to small intestine. |
|
|
Term
| Dietary carbohydrate arrives in liver via...? |
|
Definition
The Portal Vein
(makes sense b/c this receives blood from gut) |
|
|
Term
| What are the postprandial metabolic functions of the liver? (2) |
|
Definition
Insulin mediated hepatic extraction of glucose from the portal vein
Excess glucose converted to glycogen |
|
|
Term
How much glucose can the liver store?
How long could this supply the body with glucose in the fasted state?
What breaks down glycogen? |
|
Definition
Glucose is converted to glycogen...Liver can store about 75 gms of glycogen
24hrs
glucagon |
|
|
Term
| What are the fasting hepatic metabolic functions? |
|
Definition
Initially glucagon mediated glycogen breakdown
Then muscle & fat catabolism & gluconeogenesis |
|
|
Term
| In chronic liver disease, what is hyperglycemia primarily due to? |
|
Definition
Portosystemic shunting
(glucose is not taken into the liver to be stored because of portal system congestion and instead it goes straight back into the systemic circulation via a shunt per lecture) |
|
|
Term
What causes hypoglycemia in advanced liver disease? (3)
What other liver condition may cause hypoglycemia? |
|
Definition
Impaired glycogen storage
Impaired glycogenolysis
Impaired gluconeogenesis
Lg hepatocelllular CA d/t glucose uptake by tumor |
|
|
Term
| The liver makes fatty acids from excess....? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Then the liver _____ the fatty acids to form (3)? |
|
Definition
Esterfies FFA to form
Triglycerides
Cholesterol
Phospholipids |
|
|
Term
| How are fatty acids transported to adipocytes in other parts of the body? |
|
Definition
| Packaged into lipoproteins for transport |
|
|
Term
| T/F the liver is capable of synthesizing the essential amino acids? |
|
Definition
False only Non-essential amino acids
Essential a.a. must come from your diet |
|
|
Term
| Proteins are degraded into amino acids in the hepatic _________. |
|
Definition
| Proteins are degraded into amino acids in the hepatic lysosomes. |
|
|
Term
| After proteins are broken down, what are the amino acids used for? (3) |
|
Definition
Glucose production (gluconeogenesis)
Lipid metabolism (lipoproteins)
Further deaminated to keto-acids, glutamine, or ammonia |
|
|
Term
| Ammonia is converted to ___ in the liver and then is excreted by the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the failure of ammonia degradation in the liver lead to? |
|
Definition
Increasing serum ammonia levels
and
hepatic encephalopathy |
|
|
Term
| 10% of the protein produced by the liver is ____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 60% of total plasma protein is...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The primary determinant of colloid oncotic pressure is...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Just a couple of random facts about Albumin. |
|
Definition
Its an important transport mechanism
Binds many anesthetic drugs |
|
|
Term
| Whats the half life of Albumin? |
|
Definition
20 days
(thus not a good marker to determine liver function)
16hrs = exogenous albumin
|
|
|
Term
| Where is Psuedocholinesterase made? |
|
Definition
In the liver
Which was an easy guess since this is a liver lec |
|
|
Term
Psuedocholinesterase is required for the degradation of what three anesthetic drugs?
|
|
Definition
Succinylcholine
Mivacurium
Ester local anesthetics |
|
|
Term
| How much of the liver is Kupffer cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Tissue macrophages which filter toxins, bacteria and debris from the GI tract |
|
|
Term
The impairment of Kupffer cell function is often a precursor to ______ and _______.
Particularly following _______ ischemia or severe ______ pathology. |
|
Definition
The impairment of Kupffer cell function is often a precursor to Sepsis and Multi-organ failure
Particularly following splanchnic ischemia or severe GI pathology
|
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of hepatic synthesis of drug-binding proteins? |
|
Definition
Effect apparent volume of distribution of drugs
Act to decrease free drug concentrations |
|
|
Term
| The sum of all processes used by liver to eliminate a drug from the body is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hepatic Biotransformation is metabolism of drug by hepatocytes into _____, _________ substances for excretion in _____ or _____.
|
|
Definition
Hepatic Biotransformation is metabolism of drug by hepatocytes into inactive, water-soluable (polar) substances for excretion in urine or bile.
|
|
|
Term
Phase 1 reactions render drugs more polar for excretion via what 3 mechanism?
What enzymes facilitated these rxns? |
|
Definition
Oxidation
Reduction
N-dealkylation
Most involve cytochrome P450 enzymes |
|
|
Term
What occurs during phase II reactions?
What enzymes are required? |
|
Definition
Water solubility of the compound is enhanced
Requires transferase enzymes |
|
|
Term
| What is Intrinsic Clearance? |
|
Definition
The fraction of drug metabolized or extracted during a single pass through the liver
|
|
|
Term
What is the basis of classification of drugs as having low to high hepatic extraction ratios?
What is clearance determined by with a high hepatic extraction ratio drug? |
|
Definition
the drug's Intrinsic Clearance; is it high or low
Hepatic Blood Flow
(as BF increases the rate of clearance increases linearly...low hepatic extraction ratio drugs are not affected much by liver BF per graph in handout) |
|
|
Term
| What is clearance determined by with a low hepatic extraction ratio drug? |
|
Definition
Clearance relatively independent of hepatic BF
Clearance much more effected by increased free fraction/fraction unbound to proteins
(i.e. hypoalbuminemia)
(they have a linear relationship with free fraction; more free fraction = increase effect of drug and more extraction by the liver per graph and lec.) |
|
|
Term
Reduced hepatic blood flow prolongs the T1/2 and increases the effects of which drugs?
Give an example of anesthetic that decreases liver blood flow and thus may prolong extraction and metabolism of some drugs. |
|
Definition
Those with High Hepatic Extraction Ratios
*linear relationship*
IAs |
|
|
Term
| What is the result of hypoalbuminemia regarding drug action? |
|
Definition
Increased drug effect (more free drug)
More rapid clearance of low HER drugs
*linear relationship* |
|
|
Term
| The volume of distribution of some drugs will be increased by _______________ and _______. |
|
Definition
| The volume of distribution of some drugs will be increased by hypoalbuminemia and ascites. |
|
|
Term
Portosystemic shunting allows orally administred drugs to partially bypass the liver.
What is the result?
What is the bottom line with administering drugs with liver dysfunction? |
|
Definition
Increased systemic effect
Prolonged duration of action
titrate carefully |
|
|
Term
List examples of
Low hepatic extraction ratio drugs (3)
Intermediate (2)
High (9) |
|
Definition
Low hepatic extraction ratio drugs (3)
Alfentanyl
Diazepam
Thiopental
Intermediate (2)
Midazolam
Vecuronium
High (9)
Bupivacaine
Lidocaine
Etomidate
Propofol
Ketamine
Labetalol
Fentanyl
Morphine
Sufentanyl |
|
|
Term
If liver func. tests don't give a dx of a specific hepatic disease, what are they good for?
What are the 3 categories of dysfunction?
|
|
Definition
They can identify a category of dysfunction
Hepatocellular
Hepatobiliary
Hepatic synthesis
|
|
|
Term
What are tests that will indicate hepatocellular damage?
|
|
Definition
Transaminases
AST (SGOT)
ALT (SGPT)
|
|
|
Term
AST is located...?
ALT is located...? |
|
Definition
Many tissues
*less specific
Heart
Muscle
Kidney
Brain
Primarily in liver |
|
|
Term
| What is indicated by mild elevations (<3 fold) in AST/ALT? |
|
Definition
Fatty liver
Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis
Drug toxicity
Chronic viral hepatitis |
|
|
Term
| What is indicated by larger increases (3-22x) in AST/ALT? |
|
Definition
Acute Hepatitis
Exacerbation of chronic hepatitis |
|
|
Term
| What is indicated by the largest increases in AST/ALT? |
|
Definition
Drug or toxin-induced hepatocellular necrosis
Severe viral hepatitis
Ischemic hepatitis secondary to shock |
|
|
Term
| Are AST and ALT levels good prognostic indicators of hepatocellular damage? why? |
|
Definition
Nope
Decreasing levels may indicate recovery from injury or few surviving hepatocytes left
Note: These enzymes increase in circulation with damage to the hepatocytes b/c they leak out of the damaged cells |
|
|
Term
| AST/ALT ratio >2 is typical in _____ liver disease |
|
Definition
AST/ALT ratio >2 is typical in alcoholic liver disease
|
|
|
Term
| AST/ALT Ratio <1 is more common with ______? |
|
Definition
AST/ALT Ratio <1 is more common with viral hepatitis
|
|
|
Term
| When might we see high levels of LDH with liver disease? |
|
Definition
Heaptocelluar necrosis
But has very low specificity for liver disease and is not particularly useful |
|
|
Term
What is GST?
Where is GST found? |
|
Definition
Glutathione S-Transferase - a phase II enzyme
Many tissues, but isoenzyme B specific to liver |
|
|
Term
| GST is a useful marker of progression or resolution of liver injury d/t its _________? |
|
Definition
| GST is a useful marker of progression or resolution of liver injury d/t its short T1/2 of 90 minutes |
|
|
Term
Where is GST found in the highest concentration?
What is significant about this area? |
|
Definition
In Centrolobular (zone 3) hepatocytes
These are most susceptible hypatocytes to ischemic injury and toxic drug metabolites |
|
|
Term
| Where is alkaline phophatase found? |
|
Definition
Many organs
Primarily liver & bone in healthy people |
|
|
Term
| An elevation of Alkaline Phosphatase disproportianate to AST and ALT levels is indicative of what? |
|
Definition
Obstruction to bile flow
May be elevated during normal pregnancy |
|
|
Term
| What the freakin heck is 5'-Nucleotidase (5'NT)? |
|
Definition
| An alkaline phosphatase specific to liver disease, so used to assess whether an elevated AP is of hepatic origin. |
|
|
Term
What is the most sensitive test for biliary tract disease?
BUT what makes it un-useful? |
|
Definition
GGT (Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase)
un-useful b/c found in so many tissues it lacks specificity |
|
|
Term
| The GGT has been largely replaced by ____. |
|
Definition
| The GGT has been argely replaced by 5'NT, d/t its better specificity to hepatobiliary issues. |
|
|
Term
| What do Bilirubin levels assess? |
|
Definition
Severity of jaundice
*we look at conjugated and unconjugated levels* |
|
|
Term
| An unconjugated bilirubin level of _____mg/dl may indicate ______ production or _______? |
|
Definition
1-4mg/dl
Excessive production (and then hemolysis)
Defective conjugation |
|
|
Term
| Excessive production of unconjugated bilirubin is at levels greater than _____mg/dl indicate ____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Conjugated Bilirubin elevation indicate? (2)
Conjugated bilirubin levels of ___ or greater can cause ____ damage & compound situation. |
|
Definition
impaired hepatic excretion
extrahepatic obstruction (ie bile duct)
liver is conjugated as it should but it cant get it out
>35mg/dl
Renal failure |
|
|
Term
Review table on slide 37
How is hepatic synthetic function (livers ability to synthesize) measured? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Decreasing serum albumin levels in the absence of some other cause implies ____________?
Other non-liver cause are: |
|
Definition
Worsening of chronic liver disease
burns
nephrotic syndrome
poor nutrition
fluid retention
etc |
|
|
Term
T/F Albumin is only a long term measurement of function b/c half life is 20 days.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are useful markers in acute hepatocellular injury?
May not see a change in above markers with mild or even moderate liver injury b/c? |
|
Definition
PT/INR
(d/t short 4 hr 1/2 life of Factor VII)
b/c the body has excess factors floating around and it takes awhile to deplete them per Anderson |
|
|
Term
What screening test is ultrasound used for?
|
|
Definition
Hepatic disease
Cholelithiasis (gallstones)
Biliary Tract disease |
|
|
Term
| Ultrasound is the best technique for diagnosis of ________ and ________? |
|
Definition
Cholelithiasis
Biliary tract obstruction |
|
|
Term
| What provides a better anatomic definition than ultrasound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is ERCP and why is it used? |
|
Definition
Endoscopic Retrograde CholangioPancreatography
Endoscopic guidance of a catheter through the ampulla of Vater (sphincter of Oddi) to inject contrast into the pancreatic duct & common bile duct (both which empty from sphincter of Oddi into sm intestine)
Technique of choice when choledocholithiasis (stone in common bile duct) is suspected b/c a sphincterotomy can be done at the same time & the stone can be removed. |
|
|
Term
Tx sphincter of Oddi spasms with ____ per lec.
What is the only way to know the specific nature of hepatic damage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Liver biopsy is especially useful in determining treatment protocol for ______ & to determine the etiology of abnormal LFTs following a ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When are percutaneous liver biopsies contraindicated? |
|
Definition
Platlets less than 60,000
PT more than 3 secs greater than control |
|
|
Term
What biopsy technique is safer when the coags are out of whack?
T/F Liver biopsies can also be done open? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many Americans have some form of hepatobiliary disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many americans have Hep B/C? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Up to ___% of those with Hepatitis C may go on to Cirrhosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____% of those who consume large amounts of alcohol will develop...? |
|
Definition
10-15%
Severe alcoholic liver disease! |
|
|
Term
Acute viral hepatitis reported in the US
HAV?
HBV?
HCV?
HDV and HEV? |
|
Definition
HAV - 20%
HBV - 50%
HCV - 30%
HDV and HEV - seen more in 3rd world countries along with HAV |
|
|
Term
What is the most common blood-borne infection in the U.S?
This accounts for ___% of chronic liver disease?
Chronic liver disease will develop in __% of Hep B positive pts & __% of Hep C positive pts. |
|
Definition
HCV
This accounts for 40% of chronic liver disease
Chronic liver disease will develop in 1-5% of Hep B positive pts & 75% of Hep C positive pts. |
|
|
Term
| What are predictable, dose-dependent causes of drug induced hepatitis? (3) |
|
Definition
Acetaminophen
Carbon tetrachloride
Amanita Phalloides (mushroom) |
|
|
Term
| What are unpredictable, non dose-dependent causes of drug induced hepatitis?(5) |
|
Definition
NSAIDS
Volatile Anesthetics
Antibiotics
Antihypertensives
Anticonvulsants |
|
|
Term
| What was the IAs most commonly associated w/ occurrence of fulminant heaptitis leading to death? What was ratio? |
|
Definition
Halothane
1/35000 - Kind of alot
*Note only 1/3000 were nonfatal |
|
|
Term
What is the biggest risk factor for Hepatitis associated with Halothane?
List 4 other risk factors: |
|
Definition
Prior exposure to Halothane (10x more frequent in those with multiple exposures)
female
obesity
Hispanic
Adulthood
(most over 50, children resistant) |
|
|
Term
| When was Halothane induced hepatitis seen in children? |
|
Definition
| only following multiple exposures |
|
|
Term
| What are the classic symptoms of Halothane Hepatitis...what occurs ____ days later? |
|
Definition
Fever
Chills
Anorexia
Nausea
Myalgias
Rash
Jaundice 3-6 days later |
|
|
Term
| What are the predictors of a poor prognosis with Halothane Hepatitis? (3) |
|
Definition
Overt Jaundice
Age over 40
Obesity |
|
|
Term
| Whats wierd about halothane hepatitis? |
|
Definition
Affects only a very small percentage of those exposed
Incidence & severity unrelated to dose |
|
|
Term
What are the clues to the mechanism of halothane hepatitis?
What do we think is the mechanism? |
|
Definition
Idiosyncratic
Prior exposure common
Delayed onset
Antibody production
Eosinophilia
Circulating immune complexes
Antibodies that bind to antigens from halothane treated rabbits
Occupational exposure (Pediatric anesthesiologists have higher serum autoantibodies than controls. Levels are higher w female pedi anesthetists.)
Allergic or immunologic
|
|
|
Term
T/F there are currently no reports of halothane hepatitis from occupational exposure.
The risk for IAs induced hepatitis is related to the degree of _______ and production of ________ ________.
List the IAs in order from most to least metabolized with metabolite: |
|
Definition
True
metabolism
&
production of fluoroacetyl metabolites
H>E>I>D>S (0 fluoroacetyl metabolites for S) |
|
|
Term
Volatile Anesthetics and Hepatic Blood Flow
Which IAs has the most cardiovascular & respiratory depression and the greatest reduction in hepatic arterial flow?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Volatile Anesthetics and Hepatic Blood Flow
Which IAs has a marked reduction (30%) in hepatic blood flow?
This IAs may also decrease _____ and ______ ______ reserves. |
|
Definition
Desflurane
This IAs may also decrease splanchnic and hepatic oxygen reserves |
|
|
Term
Volatile Anesthetics and Hepatic Blood Flow
Hepatic blood flow and oxygenation are well preserved with ______ and ______.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which IAs is best for preserving blood flow and O2 to the liver?
List 2 other benefits of this IA for the liver:
When is this IA NOT best? Then which one is? |
|
Definition
Sevo best preserves blood flow and oxygen delivery to liver
1.Hepatic arterial buffer system remains intact 2.Less reactive metabolic products
At very high MAC level (2.0MAC)
Iso is better at these high levels *per graph slide 53-54 |
|
|
Term
| No convincing evidence that N2O causes hepatic toxicity in the absence of a precarious O2 supply-demand ratio in the liver...But!!!! |
|
Definition
N2O increases SNS tone so may slightly reduce hepatic arterial and portal venous flow
also
N2O inhibits methionine synthetase potentially producing toxic effects in the liver |
|
|
Term
| Why does it suck to be a dentist? |
|
Definition
| 60,000 dentists & dental assistants found a 1.7 fold increase in liver disease (possibly d/t N2O use) |
|
|
Term
Ketamine produces a dose-dependent increase in markers of hepatic injury.
What is the mechanism? |
|
Definition
Sympathomimetic vs direct hepatotoxicity
Altered hepatic metabolism |
|
|
Term
When might Thiopental cause some hepatic dysfunction?
Other induction agents appear to be _____? |
|
Definition
At doses greater than 750mg
Other induction agents appear to be safe |
|
|
Term
Opiods produce no significant effect on liver if...?
But watch out for..? |
|
Definition
Hepatic blood flow and oxygenation remain normal
But look out for that Spincter of Oddi Spasm
(equal risk with all narcotics and can be treated with glucagon) |
|
|
Term
| What are some non-pharmacologic causes of hepatitis? (2) |
|
Definition
Sepsis and Inflammation
(hypovolemia & splanichnic hypoperfusion/ lg bacterial toxin load/ impairment of of hepatic arterial buffer response)
Hypoxia and Ischemia
(Liver is extremely sensitive to hypoxic insult; remember 25% of CO goes to liver normally and w/o that ischemic hepatitis can result) |
|
|
Term
| How might surgical stress in general effect hepatic perfusion? (3) |
|
Definition
Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
Release of vasopressin (ADH)
Activation of renin-angioensin-aldosterone sys. |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of a laparotomy on hepatic perfusion? |
|
Definition
| Produces marked vasoconstriction, reducing splanchnic and hepatic blood flow |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of a laparoscopy on hepatic perfusion? |
|
Definition
| Decreased surgical stress response but...Pneumoperitoneum decreases splanchnic and hepatic flow |
|
|
Term
| List 2 bad and 2 good effects of CABG on hepatic perfusion? |
|
Definition
Bad
Low flow, non-pulsatile perfusion
Catacholamine usage
Good
Hypothermia
Hepatic arterial buffer response helps maintain blood flow |
|
|
Term
Chronic Hepatitis implies hepatic inflammation & _______ for greater than _____ months.
Classified based on: (3) |
|
Definition
Hepatic inflammation and necrosis for >6 months
Classified based on:
Cause (based on serologic testing)
Grade (degree of necrosis & inflammation)
Stage (degree of fibrosis) |
|
|
Term
___% of acute HCV progresses to chronic HCV
1.8 million of US population has HCV and it is the most common indicator for __________. |
|
Definition
85% of acute HCV progresses to chronic HCV
Most common indication for liver transplantation
*also cirrhosis per Anderson |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of chronic liver disease in U.S.?
Up to ___% of americans have NAFLD. |
|
Definition
Fatty liver disease (non alcohol)
Up to 24% of Americans have NAFLD |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Fat accumulation in liver >5% by weight |
|
|
Term
What are the risk factors for NAFLD? (2)
Are these pts symptomatic?
Do they develop cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
Obesity (70%)
DM II (75%)
Most asymptomatic
Some develop cirrhosis (<5% per Anderson) |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of Alcoholic liver disease? |
|
Definition
Fatty liver (steatosis)
Alcoholic hepatitis
Cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
(Alcohol) fatty liver disease may develop even after only...?
AFLD is typically ____ and _____. |
|
Definition
brief period of heavy alcohol intake
typically benign and resolves. |
|
|
Term
Alcoholic hepatitis is a precursor of ______.
It has up to a ____ fold increase in aminotransferase.
____ is typically higher than ____. |
|
Definition
Alcoholic hepatitis is a precursor of cirrhosis
up to 10-fold increase in aminotransferases (ie GST)
AST typically higher than ALT (>2 ratio) |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for alcoholic hepatitis? |
|
Definition
Abstinence
Bedrest
Adequate nutrition |
|
|
Term
| Perioperative morbidity in alcohol abusers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the most frequent etiologies of Cirrhosis?(2)
Cirrhosis is the ___ leading cause of death in US and affects ______ppl |
|
Definition
Hep C
Alcohol
12th
3 million |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of Cirrhosis? (4) |
|
Definition
Anorexia
Weakness
N/V
Absominal pain |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of Cirrhosis? (5) |
|
Definition
Jaundice
Encephalopathy
Spider Nevi
Hepatosplenomegaly
Ascites |
|
|
Term
| T/F Cirrhosis only affects the liver. |
|
Definition
| False, It affects nearly every organ system in the body. |
|
|
Term
| What are the cardiovasuclar effects of Cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
Hyperdynamic circulation
Decreased PVR
Normal to increased stroke volume
Normal filling pressures
Mildly increased heart rate
Low to normal arterial blood pressure
Total blood volume increased |
|
|
Term
| What is a cause of cirrhosis that can result in cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| *What is the hallmark of end-stage cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| *Describe the steps that lead to portal HTN |
|
Definition
↑vascular resistance to portal BF (from liver) + ↑portal venous inflow from dilated splanchnic arterioles
↓
↑portal venous pressure & subsequent development of portosystemic collaterals & shunting
↓
Majority of portal venous blood bypassing the liver |
|
|
Term
How is hepatic oxygenation maintained with Cirrhosis and Portal HTN?
(remember 75% of liver BF normally comes from portal vein & 50% of oxygen) |
|
Definition
| Hepatic oxygenation maintained by hepatic arterial buffer response |
|
|
Term
| What are the consequences of portosystemic shunting? (6) |
|
Definition
Esophageal varices
(back up in esophageal vein)
Hepatic encephalopathy
Altered drug metabolism
(many drugs bypass liver via shunts)
Susceptibility of bacterial infection
(liver not cleaning normally, & most GI absorption going systemic before going to liver)
Ascites
Splenomegaly |
|
|
Term
| Gastroesophageal Varices are present in how many cirrhotic patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many gastroesophageal varices will bleed?
___% that are fatal?
T/F most will not rebleed if controlled with medications. |
|
Definition
1/3
30% are fatal
False, most will rebleed |
|
|
Term
What is the management of Gastroesophageal Varices? (5)
What is the effectiveness rate with Octreotide and Endoscopic band ligation? |
|
Definition
Fluid resuscitation/blood replacement
Airway protection
Octreotide (synthetic somatostatin - blocks glucagon effects)
Endoscopic band ligation or sclerotherapy
TIPS
80% and 90% |
|
|
Term
| What are the factors involved in pulmonary dysfunction due to cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
Interstitial and airway edema
Mechanical effects of ascites
Pleural effusions
Hepatopulmonary Syndrome
(dyspnea & hypoxia with liver disease; worse when upright) |
|
|
Term
| What is the triad of Hepatopulmonary Syndrome? |
|
Definition
Chronic liver disease
Increased alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient
Intrapulmonary Vascular Dilations |
|
|
Term
| What do Intrapulmonary Vascular Dilations result in? |
|
Definition
| Vascular dilations result in arteriovenous communications & hypoxia |
|
|
Term
What is the most common major complication in cirrhosis?
50% of pts with cirrhosis develop ascites within ____ yrs |
|
Definition
Ascites
50% develop ascites within 10 years |
|
|
Term
| 50% of cirrhotics with ascites die within ___ yrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The pathogenesis of ascites is poorly understood but involves ____ and ____ retention and ______. |
|
Definition
Na+ and H2O
hypoalbuminemia |
|
|
Term
| What is the management of ascites? (5) |
|
Definition
Na restriction & gentle diuresis
(if you diuresis too fast may cause RAS activation and subsequent renal issues; plus these pts don't tolerate losses in BV very well d/t lack of liver reservoir fx)
Paracentesis
Peritoneal-venous shut
TIPS
Transplant |
|
|
Term
| What brings on spontaneous bacterial peritonitis? |
|
Definition
| Develops secondary to translocation of bacteria from the intestines (incr. permeability in walls) to lymph nodes and subsequent bacteremia |
|
|
Term
| What is the tx for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis? |
|
Definition
Cefotaxime (3rd generation cephalosporin)
Long term antibiotic prophylaxis |
|
|
Term
Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis
1/3 of cases develop ____ failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis
Mortality? With and without renal dysfunction? |
|
Definition
54% with renal dysfunction
9% without renal dysfunction |
|
|
Term
| What are the three things that complicate the renal dysfunction that may accompany cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
↓Na excretion
↓Free water excretion
(above 2 = ascites)
↓Renal perfusion & GFR
(hepatorenal syndrome)
|
|
|
Term
| Characteristics of Hepatorenal Syndrome (4) |
|
Definition
Intense renal vasoconstriction
Low GFR = hypoperfusion
Preserved renal tubular function
Normal renal histology
(no injury to kidney tissue at first it is just a perfusion issue per lec) |
|
|
Term
| Describe the pathophysiology of hepatorenal syndrome (5 steps) |
|
Definition
Prostacyclin, nitric oxide, glucagon
↓
Splanchnic arterial vasodilation
↓
Reduced effective blood volume (d/t pooling)
also d/t acities fluid shifts
↓
Activation of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and sympathetic stimulation
↓
Intense renal vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| What are two reasons acute renal failure & acute tubular necrosis may occur with cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
1. The livers role as a blood reservoir is impaired so even modest blood loss can produce severe hypotension and lead to acute injury
2. Obstructive Jaundice & elevated levels of conjugated bilirubin contribute to renal toxicity
*so diuresis gently and stay on top of fluid needs! |
|
|
Term
| What is the occurance of thrombocytopenia with liver disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two major coagultion disorders seen with cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
Disorders of clotting factors & vit k
(decreased synthesis)
Thrombocytopenia
(backed up in spleen and incr destruction) |
|
|
Term
| T/F Due to Thrombocytopenia, patients with cirrohsis tend to bleed out of their eyeballs. |
|
Definition
No, No that's not true
Spontaneous bleeding is uncommon |
|
|
Term
What is the biggest cause of thrombocytopenia with Cirrhosis?
List 4 other contributing factors: |
|
Definition
Portal hypertension-induced splenomegaly with seqestration of up to 90% of circulating platletes in spleen
1. Increased destruction by immune mechanisms
2. Low-grade DIC
3. Sepsis
4. Bone marrow suppression by ehtanol, folate deficiency |
|
|
Term
| What contributes to hypoglycemia w/ cirrhosis? (2) |
|
Definition
Glycogen depletion (d/t poor nutritional state) & interference with gluconeogenesis (by ETOH)
Impaired conversion of lactic acid to lactate and then to glucose
above = acidosis and hypoglycemia |
|
|
Term
| What is a terrible thing that happens to men with cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
Gonadal dysfunction
Feminization, gynecomastia, shrinkage of testes and prostate |
|
|
Term
| How do endocrine disorders associated with cirrhosis affect women? |
|
Definition
Oligomenorrhea
Amenorrhea
"men become women and women become men per Dr. Anderson" |
|
|
Term
| Describe hepatic encephalopathy. |
|
Definition
Reversible, metabolic encephalopathy
Ranging from minimal personality changes or sleep disturbances to confusion, lethargy, coma
30-60% of cirrhotics |
|
|
Term
| What are precipitators of Hepatic Encephalopathy? |
|
Definition
Large dietary protein load
GI Bleed
Constipation
Diuretics
Azotemia
(dec renal perfusion = incr. nitrogen waste products ie BUN and urea)
Surgery & anesthesia |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important factor in HE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the possible mechanisms of the global depression seen in hepatic encephalopathy? (4) |
|
Definition
Increased availability of agonist ligands of GABA receptors, so called natural benzodiazipines (Improvement in mental status with flumazenil)
Disruption of blood-brain barrier
Neurotoxic compounds
Impaired cerebral energy metabolism |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for HE? |
|
Definition
Prevention
Lactulose
Neomycin
Zinc
Liver Transplant |
|
|
Term
| How does lactulose treat HE? |
|
Definition
Not broken down in the intestine
Produces mvmt of ammonia from blood to bowel
Cathartic (cleansing/purging) |
|
|
Term
| How does Neomycin treat HE? |
|
Definition
| Reduces urease-producing bacteria in gut |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Two enzymes needed for converstion of ammonia to urea are zinc dependent |
|
|
Term
| What is the 3rd most frequent cause of death from cancer? |
|
Definition
Primary Hepatocellular Carcinoma
2.4/100,000 in U.S. |
|
|
Term
When does primary hepatocellular carcionoma occur?
|
|
Definition
Usually follows cirrhosis
Worldwide - large majority follow viral hepatitis
U.S. - 30-40% after viral hepatitis |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for primary hepatocellular carcinoma? |
|
Definition
Liver transplant
Few patients have a surgically resectable tumor at the time of presentation |
|
|
Term
When does pregnancy-related liver disease present?
What is it called?
What syndrome is commonly seen with it? |
|
Definition
3rd trimester or immediately post-partum
Actue Fatty Liver of Pregnancy
HELLP |
|
|
Term
Characteristics of Acute Fatty Liver of Pregnancy
Severe?
Recovery?
Tx? |
|
Definition
Rarely severe
Most recover fully
Treatment: Expedite delivery
(without delivery pt will go into acute liver failure and die without transplant per Stolting) |
|
|
Term
What is HELLP?
When may this be seen?
What is tx? |
|
Definition
Hemolysis
Elevated Liver Enzymes
Low Platelets
Liver disease of Pregnancy
(caused by ischemic hepatocellular necrosis that will continue until baby is delivered)
Expedite delivery |
|
|
Term
| What in our pre-op history will indicate acute liver failure? |
|
Definition
Nause/Malaise
↓
Rapid onset of jaundice
↓
Altered mental status
|
|
|
Term
List exam findings that would make you suspicious of hepatic disease (9)
|
|
Definition
- Icterus (jaundiced sclera)
- jaundice
- ascites
- spider angiomata
- petechiae
- asterixis (push hand back and if it flutters = liver issues)
- gynecomastia
- splenomegaly
- palpable enlarged liver
|
|
|
Term
| If there is no history or physical exam suggestive of liver disease should we draw labs looking for it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F If hepatic disease is known or suspected you should draw labs to quantify degree of dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What should we do if we have abnormal labs in the absence of history or physical exam findings?
(previously healthy non-liver diseased pt) |
|
Definition
Delay surgery to avoid catching someone in the early, undiagnosed stages of liver disease
Not always practical |
|
|
Term
T/F Acute hepatic disease, regardless of the etiology, increases perioperative morbidity and mortality
Elective surgery should be postponed if the patient is known to have _____ hepatic disease.
|
|
Definition
True
acute hepatic disease |
|
|
Term
Per chart on slide 90
When do you investigate and elevated AST/ALT?
If greater than 2X normal what should you do?
If second test still >2X norm then if ALT>AST consider _____ and if AST>ALT consider ______.
T/F a formal evaluation with these pts will be required before surgery can proceed? |
|
Definition
When it is greater than 2X normal
(if less than 2X then proceed with surgery)
Repeat test
ALT>AST (ratio <1) = viral hepatitis
AST>ALT (ratio >2) = ETOH/drug abuse
True
|
|
|
Term
Per chart on slide 90
If pt with elevated AST/ALT and abnormal INR then consider ______ dysfunction and ____ surgery.
If Alkaline phosphatase elevated >2X norm with abnormal ____ & ____ then = ________ disease and formal workup needed.
If AP up <2X and normal GGT and Bilirubin then you can ________? |
|
Definition
hepatobiliary dysfuction
delay (needs workup)
GGT
bilirubin
biliary disease
proceed with surgery |
|
|
Term
What risk factors are taken into account when assessing the severity of hepatic disease?
If a pt has 7-8 of these risk factors they have a ____% risk for complications. |
|
Definition
- Child-Pugh factors
- Ascites
- Cirrhosis (other than primary biliary)
- Serum creatinine
- COPD
- Preop infection
- Preop upper GI bleed
- Higher ASA physical status
- Intraop hypotension
- Higher surgical severity score
100% |
|
|
Term
Periopertiave Risk Assessment
List components of Child (1964)
Child-Pugh (1972) (this is the current tool used) |
|
Definition
Serum Albumin
Serum Bilirubin
Ascites
Encephalopathy
Nutritional status
Serum Albumin
Serum Bilirubin
Ascites
Encephalopathy
PT |
|
|
Term
| Preoperative concerns include... |
|
Definition
Extent of liver disease
Age
Coexisting disease
Type, location, duration of surgery |
|
|
Term
| Which surgeries are associated with the highest risk of death with liver disease? |
|
Definition
| GI and Emergency surgeries |
|
|
Term
| How might our benzos need to be adjusted? |
|
Definition
There is increased cerebral uptake of benzodiazipines
Consider decreased doses
Careful titration |
|
|
Term
| What will we give for aspiration prophylaxis? |
|
Definition
H2 blocker
Metoclopramide
Sodium bicitrate |
|
|
Term
| Will the duration/elimination be prolonged with use of Thiopental with liver disease? |
|
Definition
No it is a low HER drug
Elimination T1/2 unchanged in cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
Propofol is a high HER drug so is its elimination changed with cirrhosis?
Duration? |
|
Definition
Elimination profile unchanged from control
May see slight increase in recovery time/duration following infusion (not significant per Ron) |
|
|
Term
Etomidate
Clearance
Elimination
Duration/Recovery |
|
Definition
Clearance unchanged in cirrhosis
Increased Vd may result in prolonged elimination of T1/2
and
unpredictable recovery |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
high HER
prolly not the best d/t SNS stimulation but "do what you need to do"
"dont give to a tiger" |
|
|
Term
| Morphine and Demerol have a 1.5-2 fold ____ in clearance and ______ in elimination T1/2 |
|
Definition
| 1.5-2 fold decrease in clearance and increase in elimination T1/2 |
|
|
Term
| Alfentanyl has pronounced and prolonged effects due to: (2) |
|
Definition
Increased free fraction
Decreased clearance
(clearance would be increased with increase in free fraction of drug but, d/t liver disease & its effect on the CYP450 system, the overall clearance is decreased--remember low HER drugs are much more dependant on CYP450 syst) |
|
|
Term
Fentanyl
Volume of distribution
Elimination T1/2 |
|
Definition
No change in volume of distribution
Increased Elimination T1/2 d/t decreased clearance |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
No significant pharmacokinetic change from control
May have slightly prolonged effect following multiple doses |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Clearance unaltered in severe liver disease |
|
|
Term
Dexmedetomidine (precedex)
Clearance
Elimination T1/2 |
|
Definition
Significantly decreased clearance
prolonged half-lives |
|
|
Term
| What is Rons Bottom Line on Induction Agents? |
|
Definition
| Decreases in plasma proteins may result in a increase of free drug and more significant responses to a "standard" dose of these drugs. |
|
|
Term
| What are the goals for the maintenance of anesthesia? |
|
Definition
Avoid direct drug-related toxicity
Maintain adequate hepatic perfusion and oxygenation |
|
|
Term
How are we going to avoid drug-related toxicty and maintain adequate hepatic perfusion and oxygenation?????!!!!!!!
Most important is simply....b/c blood reservoir is gone. |
|
Definition
Maintain adequate:
Cardiac output
Blood volume
Perfusion pressure
Oxygenation
Prompt replacement of fluid & blood |
|
|
Term
| Succs in hepatic disease...? |
|
Definition
Decreased plasma cholinesterase
but likely not an issue |
|
|
Term
| Mivacurium in hepatic disease - Decreased plasma cholinesterase _____ prolong action |
|
Definition
| Decreased plasma cholinesterase will prolong action |
|
|
Term
| Atracurium/Cisatracurium with hepatic disease...? |
|
Definition
Hofman elimination
Essentially independent of hepatic & renal disease |
|
|
Term
Other NDPMR and hepatic disease...?
Dose?
Length of blockade?
Clearance?
|
|
Definition
Increase Vd so increased inital dose?
(Ron says yes, then can titrate subsequent doses with info gained with 1st dose & PNS)
Anticipate prolonged blockade
(recall all aminosteroidals are metabolized in liver/kidneys)
Markedly decreased clearance
Titrate to effect |
|
|
Term
Overall there is an increased concentration of _______ substances such as _______ with liver disease, resutling in markedly reduced response to ___________.
So what should you do to treat hypotension? |
|
Definition
Overall there is an increased concentration of vasodilatory substances such as glucagon with liver disease, resutling in markedly reduced response to catecholamines.
May need increased doses of catecholamines
or
give a non-adrenergic vasoconstrictor like vasopressin |
|
|
Term
| What does the need for invasive monitoring depend on? |
|
Definition
The severity of liver dysfunction and effect on other organ systems
Coexisting disease
Anticipated extent of surgery |
|
|
Term
| Why is a large bore IV access a must in anything but the most peripheral cases? |
|
Definition
May encounter coagulopathy and excessive bleeding
Will not tolerate hypovolemia well |
|
|
Term
| What is the advantage of using a local with sedation with hepatic dysfunction? |
|
Definition
Least invasive
Allows titration of drugs |
|
|
Term
| A regional is typically well tolerated as long as 2 conditions are met: |
|
Definition
Adequate fluid loading
Absence of coagulopathy |
|
|
Term
Should we use colloids or crystalloids?
If use GETA then you should ______ induction unless emergency and then RSI is route. |
|
Definition
No documented difference
titrate |
|
|
Term
When is monitoring of filling pressures appropriate?
Remember liver disease including_________ results in decreased ability to move blood to the central circulation. |
|
Definition
In severe disease or more extensive surgery
biliary obstruction |
|
|
Term
| We may see jaundice postop following ______________ in the absence of liver insult |
|
Definition
We may see jaundice postop following reabsorption of surgical hematoma in the absence of liver insult
|
|
|
Term
What do large increases in serum transaminases post op reflect?
Postop liver dysfunction is ____ but rarely _____ in a previously healthy pt? |
|
Definition
Extensive hepatocellular necrosis
Postop liver dysfunction is common but rarely severe previously healthy pt. |
|
|
Term
Fulminant Hepatic Failure = A term used to describe acute liver failure in a previously healthy pt with the following criteria:
|
|
Definition
Encephalopathy within 2 weeks of developement of juandice
or
Encephalopathy within 8 weeks of initial manifestation of hepatic disease. |
|
|
Term
| How is Hepatic dysfunction managed postoperatively? |
|
Definition
D/C any suspect medication
Investigate potential sources of infection
Consider extrahepatic biliary obstruction
Lab studies to quantify |
|
|
Term
| Remember per the study on ASA1 pts on slide 111 that preop elevation of LFT may indicated _______ and surgery should be ______ and ______ done. |
|
Definition
new onset of hepatic dysfunction
surgery should be delayed
full workup should be done |
|
|