Term
| What year was the name of the career field changed to "Security Police"? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| In March 1971, Security Forces career field was split into what two separate functions? |
|
Definition
| Law enforcement and security specialties |
|
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Term
| The law enforcement specialty was responsible for providing |
|
Definition
| the typical police response to safeguard personnel and property. |
|
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Term
| The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for |
|
Definition
| revised security thinking. |
|
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Term
| The death of SSgt Terrance Jensen had what effect? |
|
Definition
| Within 2 months 149 additional canine teams were shipped to Vietnam |
|
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Term
| Operation SAFE SIDE provided Security Police with |
|
Definition
| training in light infantry tactics and special weapons |
|
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Term
| After Vietnam, what was the next large scale war Security Police found themselves involved in? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Prior to March 1971, basic training graduates could be assigned to SP units without |
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Definition
| formal technical training. |
|
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Term
| When SF members perform law enforcement functions, they are referred to as |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The term "SF member" is used when |
|
Definition
| performing security functions. |
|
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Term
| The SF shield serves as a figure of |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The Security Police shield started out as a/an |
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Definition
| Military Police/Air Police brassard. |
|
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Term
| When was the first trial issue shield approved? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the military working dog handler apprentice course? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Airman Leadership School must be completed prior to |
|
Definition
| assuming the rank of SSgt |
|
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Term
| Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment? |
|
Definition
| Code of Conduct and SF General Orders. |
|
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Term
| What are the cornerstones of our profession? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| You have failed to follow what general order guideline if you issued a ticket based on the violator's race? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with |
|
Definition
| AFI 31-207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel. |
|
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Term
| How many different job titles are normally present in the typical unit structure? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The typical SF command section includes all of the following except? |
|
Definition
| Superintendent, Resources & Training |
|
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Term
| When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are designated |
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Definition
|
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Term
| The term "every airman is a sensor...contributing to overall base defense" is the concept of |
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Definition
|
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Term
| During base defense the S-3 function can be compared to |
|
Definition
| the operations officer position |
|
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Term
| The primary task of the S-4 during combat operations is to |
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Definition
|
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Term
| The authority, capacity, power and right of the military to police their own is known as |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which legal document contains law that applies to all branches of the US Armed Forces? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress and are contained in the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Laws in the US Code that directly affect the Air Force are covered in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| US military authority in host nation territories is governed by |
|
Definition
| Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA) |
|
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Term
| What example of international law was reached at the Hague and Geneva conventions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are |
|
Definition
| exclusive, concurrent, partial & proprietary |
|
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Term
| When concurrent jurisdiction exists and there is a conflict with the state |
|
Definition
| the federal government prevails under the Supremacy Clause |
|
|
Term
| When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory it is known as |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During absolute martial law, SF members have the authority to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military offenders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes you to |
|
Definition
| detain civilians for on base offenses |
|
|
Term
| Under exclusive jurisdiction you normally relinquish detained civilians to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What right could you invoke when apprehending any person for breach of the peace? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You can research the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act in |
|
Definition
| Title 18, Section 1385 US Code |
|
|
Term
| The Defense Authorization Act authorizes us to assist civil authorities by providing |
|
Definition
| information, equipment, facilities & training |
|
|
Term
| Military working dogs (MWD) are most effective when they're visible to public; we ensure this by |
|
Definition
| conducting periodic public MWD demonstrations |
|
|
Term
| Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must |
|
Definition
| bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building |
|
|
Term
| Before releasing a military working dog to search buildings, the handler must |
|
Definition
| give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog |
|
|
Term
| When conducting building checks the military working dog is normally |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The military working dog team should always approach buildings from the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who determines whether a military working dog will search a building on or off-leash? |
|
Definition
| On-duty supervisor and handler |
|
|
Term
| The military working dog's greatest advantage during security operations is |
|
Definition
| detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility |
|
|
Term
| What is the military working dog's role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators? |
|
Definition
| protect members of the apprehension team |
|
|
Term
| Hostile intent is best described as |
|
Definition
| the imminent threat of force to US forces |
|
|
Term
| What are the Rules of Engagement elements of self-defense? |
|
Definition
| Proportionality and necessity |
|
|
Term
| Proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be |
|
Definition
| of reasonable intensity, duration and magnitude |
|
|
Term
| A written order by a competent military commander ordering a search is called a/an |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who can issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries? |
|
Definition
| Air Force Installation commanders |
|
|
Term
| What exists when there is reason to believe that evidence sought is located in a specific place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A search affidavit of "probable cause" supporting your request for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A person who exercises control over property given to them for safekeeping may |
|
Definition
| grant consent to search that property |
|
|
Term
| Under what conditions during a lawful stop can a frisk be conducted? |
|
Definition
| You reasonably believe the person is armed and dangerous |
|
|
Term
| Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the common reasons for an interviewee's reluctance to talk? |
|
Definition
| Inconvenience, resentment & fear of involvement |
|
|
Term
| If a witness is reluctant to talk because of the possible reprisals, they are experiencing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of interviewee is interviewed to develop facts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The four step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing and |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the types of interview approaches? |
|
Definition
| Alternating, direct, indirect |
|
|
Term
| Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed and |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does your pretrial preparation begin? |
|
Definition
| As soon as you are dispatched to an incident |
|
|
Term
| Investigators will conduct pretrial preparation with |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When should you give your opinion during court proceedings? |
|
Definition
| only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense |
|
|
Term
| The budget process is broken down into two centers of control |
|
Definition
| cost centers & responsibility center |
|
|
Term
| Who is normally responsible for the responsibility center? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects? |
|
Definition
| Positions authorized to accomplish the mission |
|
|
Term
| What is the main reason supply discipline is mandatory? |
|
Definition
| Conserve, protect, and maintain available government supplies, equipment & real property |
|
|
Term
| What does the Career Field Education & Training Plan (CFETP) identify? |
|
Definition
| Life-cycle education & training requirements, both mandatory and desirable |
|
|
Term
| Stan-Evals will be conducted within? |
|
Definition
| 30 duty days after an individual completes qualification training |
|
|
Term
| The goal of the AF Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS) program is to provide what? |
|
Definition
| Prompt police information through the use of technology |
|
|
Term
| What are the responsibilities of the Chief of Security Forces (CSF)? |
|
Definition
| Selecting/training of personnel operating the AFLETS system |
|
|
Term
| Computerized Criminal Histories and the Interstate Identification Index are documented in what federal system? |
|
Definition
| A federal system of records controlled under the Privacy Act of 1974 |
|
|
Term
| All personnel assigned against a Unit Type Code manpower position will |
|
Definition
| receive firearms training based on their assigned arming group (Group A, B, or C) |
|
|
Term
| Individual weapons training programs are outlined in? |
|
Definition
| AFMAN 36-2226, Volume 1, Combat Arms Training Programs, Individual Weapons |
|
|
Term
| What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis? |
|
Definition
| AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt |
|
|
Term
| The use of prowords in radio communication help |
|
Definition
| shorten sending time & simplify clear reception |
|
|
Term
| Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they |
|
Definition
| have an unfavorable information file |
|
|
Term
| Corrections staff personnel should complete or be scheduled to attend |
|
Definition
| service corrections course (or civilian equivalent) |
|
|
Term
| All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either |
|
Definition
| pretrial detainee, post-trial inmate or casual |
|
|
Term
| All inmates will have an initial confinement examination within |
|
Definition
| 24 hours, or the next duty day |
|
|
Term
| What can you use to clean your mouth effectively in the absence of other means? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four major groups for transmission of communicable diseases? |
|
Definition
| Contact, intestinal, waterborne, and insect and animal borne |
|
|
Term
| What is one of the ways you can prevent the introduction of diseases into your body? |
|
Definition
| Eating and drinking from approved sources only |
|
|
Term
| An effective way of defeating crawling insects is |
|
Definition
| tucking your pants into the tops of your socks and boots |
|
|
Term
| What can you use to keep your clothes dry in the field? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| is considered the most deadly hazard of the security forces career field? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There are many causes of stress; however, the main source of stress can be found where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most often suicidal persons are overwhelmed with |
|
Definition
| loss of a loved one, mental health, and divorce |
|
|
Term
| Microorganisms in blood that cause disease are? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What tactics reduce exposure to blood borne pathogens on the job? |
|
Definition
| Employee work practices, personal protective equipment, and housekeeping |
|
|
Term
| What standard did the US Supreme Court establish for assessing use of force? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The three essential areas that support "objective reasonableness" are subject action, |
|
Definition
| risk perception, and officer response |
|
|
Term
| You respond to the base housing area to remove several solicitors. You advised them they can't solicit in base housing; you ask them to leave and they comply. What subject action level in the Use of Force Model is demonstrated to control the situation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Upon contact with the solicitor, you receive proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves. What subject action level is it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You initiate a challenge on a person inside a restricted area because he or she is not wearing a restricted area badge. What are the risk perception, subject action, and office response levels? |
|
Definition
| Professional perception, complaint, and cooperative controls |
|
|
Term
| Deadly force would be authorized to keep |
|
Definition
| someone from killing you or doing you serious bodily harm |
|
|
Term
| Deadly force is authorized for protection of military resources |
|
Definition
| vital to national security |
|
|
Term
| Which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force? |
|
Definition
| Keep someone from breaking into a house |
|
|
Term
| You should respond to an actual incident where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M-4 rifle at port arms, with the safety selector on |
|
Definition
| safe, and your finger not in the trigger guard |
|
|
Term
| Once you detect an unidentified individual inside the restricted area, your first action is to |
|
Definition
| notify SFCC, or MSC of the situation through the communication system on post |
|
|
Term
| When challenging individuals on foot, place the individuals in the final challenge position, instruct them to remove and place their credentials on the ground, and command them to turn around and walk how many paces away from the credentials? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the decision to handcuff or not handcuff apprehended individuals based upon? |
|
Definition
| Sound professional judgment and facts of a specific incident |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can you prevent a suspect from stepping through the handcuffs? |
|
Definition
| Loop the cuffs through the suspect's belt at a point below the small of his/her back |
|
|
Term
| The alert stance places your weak side towards an individual & your weapon/strong side 45 degrees away from the suspect, maintaining a distance of at least how many feet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When suspects are cooperative, handcuff them |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You would use a standing search on a suspect who is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the correct procedure for changing your position from searching the weak side to the strong side standing search? |
|
Definition
| Switch hands on linking chain, place strong hand on suspect's shoulder, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position |
|
|
Term
| The type of suspect best suited for a prone search is one who |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which part of the body do you begin the prone search? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you apprehend someone of the opposite sex, you can search the |
|
Definition
| outer garments and hand-carried items |
|
|
Term
| Your first task as the transporting officer is to familiarize yourself with |
|
Definition
| vehicle, specific security devices, safety, and security |
|
|
Term
| When you arrive at Security Forces Control Center, after transporting someone of the opposite gender, what information must you provide to the controller? |
|
Definition
| Time arrived and ending mileage reading |
|
|
Term
| In which portion of the Use of Force Model can you expect to use Physical Apprehension and Restraint Techniques? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When using the one hand grab breakaway technique, in STEP 1, you spread the fingers wide apart, and rotate your thumb hand how many degrees over the suspect's hand? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Upon what is your decision to apprehend based? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two most important factors to keep in mind when approaching a suspect to make an apprehension? |
|
Definition
| Your position & your attitude |
|
|
Term
| The ultimate goal of using Pressure Point Control Tactics with IKKYO grip techniques to make an apprehension is to |
|
Definition
| gain control of your suspect |
|
|
Term
| The IKKYO grip is applied with two directions of pressure. In STEP 3, you apply downward pressure to the elbow with your weak hand while rotating the elbow joint |
|
Definition
| rearward while pushing inward on the suspect's hand |
|
|
Term
| In STEP 2 of the standing arm bar, what do you place into the small of the suspect's back as you move your inside foot to the rear of the suspect's feet and step to the left/right? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep the suspect's
|
|
Definition
| arm parallel to the ground |
|
|
Term
| The three principle target areas for the baton are arms, |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The baton primarily is used as what type of weapon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For how many minutes can the effects & symptoms of OC pepper spray last when left untreated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| OC pepper spray is a pressurized hand-held weapon that is considered |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of spray pattern does OC pepper spray canisters emit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For rifle fighting techniques to be effective they must be applied with |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The proper way to assume the rifle fighting technique attack position is to place |
|
Definition
| the left hand on the rifle hand guard & the right hand on the top of the rifle stock as close to the charging handle as possible |
|
|
Term
| Which rifle fighting technique is used to disarm an opponent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is an example of a rough grid coordinate? A) 3/B B) B/3 C) E3/4.2 D) 4.2/E3
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an incident involving nuclear weapons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The accidental or unauthorized launching of a nuclear weapon that could create the risk of war is called a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Initial Disaster Control Group and higher headquarters is notified of a grave situation by the |
|
Definition
| base's established notification system |
|
|
Term
| How are withdrawal actions accomplished at the scene of a major disaster? |
|
Definition
| Upwind or crosswind direction |
|
|
Term
| What major accident phase is a complex & time-consuming operation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cordon size of an accident involving nuclear weapons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the size of an accident involving biological agents? |
|
Definition
| 2000 feet upwind & crosswind |
|
|
Term
| Regardless of size, who establishes & controls on-base cordons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you do if someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident? |
|
Definition
| Do not answer questions & refer them to public affairs personnel |
|
|
Term
| One of the primary Air Force goals in dealing with high-risk situations is to |
|
Definition
| prevent or minimize loss of life & property |
|
|
Term
| Who is the lead agency responsible for containing and resolving terrorist incidents occurring off the installation? |
|
Definition
| Federal Bureau of Investigations |
|
|
Term
| The principle method for peacefully resolving a high-risk situation is through the use of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Once the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene is established by Security Force personnel, who is allowed inside? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than an accident called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Failure to provide a child with the basic necessities of life is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Punching, kicking, beating, stabbing, are examples of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Non-accidental injuries such as burns, spiral fractures or the arms or legs & bruises are |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of child abuse or neglect are you dealing with if you discover parents blatantly rejecting their child? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When responding to a call, keep in mind that each situation is different so the best approach is for you to be |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form must be filled out in all instances involving an apprehension? |
|
Definition
| AF Form 3545, Incident Report |
|
|
Term
| When dealing with a violent disturbance, Security Force (SF) members must immediately |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The difference between a violent dispute & verbal dispute is during a |
|
Definition
| verbal dispute a physical assault has not occurred |
|
|
Term
| How are vehicles selected when conducting installation entry point checks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At least how many security forces members should be present when entry point checks are conducted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After you have stopped a vehicle & asked the drive for permission to examine the vehicle & contents, before starting a base entry point check of a vehicle, have the driver |
|
Definition
| turn off the engine, have all other occupants exit vehicle, have driver open center console, glove compartment, exit vehicle & open trunk & any other locked compartments |
|
|
Term
| What must you do once illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check? |
|
Definition
| Stop the check immediately & apprehend/detain individual |
|
|
Term
| Before conducing a vehicle search, you must have probable cause, |
|
Definition
| proper search authority, & consent of the person controlling vehicle |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of vehicle searches? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which search method is often used to conduct a room, building or small outdoor area search? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which search method is often used to in large outdoor areas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you hear cries for help from a building while on patrol you may |
|
Definition
| enter the building to prevent injury or damage |
|
|
Term
| Why is it important to keep suspects & witnesses separated? |
|
Definition
| So you cannot distort each other's impression |
|
|
Term
| What does full body coverage include when you are in a contaminated area? |
|
Definition
| Hood, surgical mask, eye protection |
|
|
Term
| What is a basic rule when photographing crime scenes when audio-visual personnel are not available? |
|
Definition
| Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched |
|
|
Term
| As a security forces member, you testify under oath, "I saw the car driven by SMSgt Rhodia Perry weaving back & forth across the road." This is an example of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must evidence be to be admissible in court? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you do if you touch an item of evidence & your fingerprints are transferred to it? |
|
Definition
| Record it in your notes and report |
|
|
Term
| What is the goal of employing blast and fragment mitigation? |
|
Definition
| Reduce the number of casualties associated with terrorist bombings |
|
|
Term
| What type of barrier is typically employed for counter mobility or blast/fragmentation around entry control points and approach avenues? |
|
Definition
| Jersey and Bitburg barriers |
|
|
Term
| Which barrier is intended for use against fragment mitigation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is an example of a protection level 1 resource? |
|
Definition
| C4 systems of active nuclear missions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area |
|
|
Term
| What kind of area contains federal government resources located off military lands and doesn't fall under the jurisdiction of the DoD or a military department? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the augmentation force if a nuclear weapon has been taken? |
|
Definition
| To assist in recapture and recovery operations |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for providing on-site security anytime alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time? |
|
Definition
| Camper Alert Team (CAT) (DoD UCNI) |
|
|
Term
| Where would the two-person concept apply with respect to security forces performing entry control duties? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Security fences serve as a |
|
Definition
| legal and physical demarcation of an area boundary |
|
|
Term
| The security fence height must be how many feet above the ground surface? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The fence for a restricted area must be how close to firm ground? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the minimum number of feet from the base perimeter for locating a restricted area fence containing protection level 1 resources?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type padlock must be used to secure a gate for a restricted area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of lighting is used to support restricted areas, other than nuclear areas, during contingency operations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what intervals are restricted area signs displayed along the restricted area boundary? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many lines of detection must Security Forces (SF) establish for PL1 nonnuclear? |
|
Definition
| One line at the restricted area boundary and one line at the structure |
|
|
Term
| What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood? |
|
Definition
| Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities |
|
|
Term
| The success of any community policing program depends |
|
Definition
| on the extend to which the program meets the community's needs |
|
|
Term
| Which agency is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes? |
|
Definition
| Office Special Investigations |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for ensuring the flight is aware of the categories of suspicious terrorist related activities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which crime prevention program encourages residents to permanently mark their high pilferage property with an identification number? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Security force members should be discreet when using the siren because it |
|
Definition
| frequently complicates traffic problems |
|
|
Term
| What would you do if a violator stops in an area that you do not like or is unsafe? |
|
Definition
| Use your public address system to instruct the violator where to go |
|
|
Term
| Where do you position your vehicle in relation to the violator's vehicle during a traffic stop? |
|
Definition
| Two vehicle lengths behind and three feet to the left |
|
|
Term
| When contacting the violator during a traffic stop, an exigent circumstance would be speeding to |
|
Definition
| get your pregnant wife to the hospital |
|
|
Term
| In the double abreast position, the primary and backup patrol vehicles are positioned double abreast how many feet to the rear of the suspect's vehicle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Within how many hours must you report an accident to which Security Force did not respond? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Verbal commands are seldom used when directing traffic because |
|
Definition
| Shouting orders tend to antagonize motorists |
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the walk and turn field sobriety test to implicate at least a 0.10 BAC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should the Chief, Security Forces (CSF) consider purchasing the same brand and model of equipment used by your civilian counterparts? |
|
Definition
| So your qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to prosecute offenders |
|
|
Term
| Which breath instrument uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After you write a report, the next step would be to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which report is an official/permanent record of events? |
|
Definition
| AF Form 3545, Incident Report |
|
|
Term
| If your report is non-opinionated, fair, and impartial, you are fulfilling which characteristic of a well written report? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which sentence is an example of an active voice? |
|
Definition
| Sgt Smith struck Amn Jones |
|
|
Term
| What is used on AF Form 3545, Incident Report, to indicate if an offense was religious, sexual or racially motivated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must you do if you use the question and answer technique on the AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant? |
|
Definition
| Have the person giving the statement initial after each question and answer |
|
|
Term
| The chain-of-custody on the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is initiated by the |
|
Definition
| person who initially received, obtained, or seized the property |
|
|
Term
| What is placed in the badge number block of the AF Form 1109 when no badge is used for an area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who |
|
Definition
| committed a moving or nonmoving traffic offense |
|
|
Term
| What is placed in the badge number block of the AF Form 1109 when no badge is used for an area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who has the authority to void a DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket? |
|
Definition
| Issuing security forces member or Chief, Security Forces |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The taking of an item by authorities for evidence at courts-martial |
|
|
Term
| Who can authorize a search? |
|
Definition
| Commander having control over the area or person or property to be searched |
|
|
Term
| What is used to document consent to search if an AF Form 1364 is not available? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which section of the DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report would you annotate the results of blood alcohol level of the suspect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many copies of the DD Form 2708, Receipt of Inmate of Detained Person should you prepare? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What action or initiative provides the means for joint forces to dictate battlespace operations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| One of the ways responsiveness is achieved is through |
|
Definition
| early detection of the threat. |
|
|
Term
| How many basic fundamentals of defense are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For defense to be effective, it must have |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who provides the foundation of the integrated base defense concept? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Under which phase of integrated base defense (IBD) do we tailor defense plans to proactively counter enemy threats |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which principle of Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) applies appropriate military capability prudently? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) principle directs every operation toward a clearly defined objective? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many types of Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) do not involve combat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) uses physical presence to demonstrate US resolve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur inside of the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aircraft are the preferred hijacking target of terrorist; however, they have also hijacked |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Terrorist in the future may be more likely to use chemical and biological weapons because |
|
Definition
| the cost is cheap and they are easily available |
|
|
Term
| What are terrorists' most important gain even when the actual mission fails? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which terrorist group operates independently? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which terrorist group operates autonomously? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which terrorist group operates as an agent of the government? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many Force Protection (FP) conditions are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which Force Protection (FP) condition is a terrorist action against installations and personnel imminent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What threat assessment factor exists when there are confirmed intentions of a terrorist group? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Existence or capability must be present, and history may or may not be present in threat level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| OPSEC enables friendly force information superiority by |
|
Definition
| neutralizing adversary information activities |
|
|
Term
| What is the last step in the Operations Security (OPSEC) process? |
|
Definition
| Application of appropriate measures |
|
|
Term
| Specific items of information are usually only critical for a prescribed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The centerpiece of Operations Security (OPSEC) is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Masking and controlling friendly actions to prevent the collection of critical information is |
|
Definition
| the primary goal of OPSEC |
|
|
Term
| Which aircraft is a low density/high demand asset? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does a surge trigger point show? |
|
Definition
| Requirements begin to exceed the capabilities of the two AEFs & available LD/HD forces |
|
|
Term
| Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full-scale air base operation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An effective tool to control air base defense (ABD) operations is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should a flight sector sketch show? |
|
Definition
| Flight and squadron identification |
|
|
Term
| When did the US ratify the Geneva Conventions for the Protection of War Victims? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Geneva Conventions became effective in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the fifth step in captives, detainees & prisoners (CDPs) processing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the captives, detainees, and prisoners (CDPs) capture tag is retained by the capturing unit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the Electronic Security System (ESS), |
|
Definition
| remove the positive lead first |
|
|
Term
| How can we enhance assessment of intrusions using Electronic Security System (ESS)? |
|
Definition
| Wide area surveillance thermal imager (WSTI) |
|
|
Term
| The area of Electronic Security Systems (ESS) that includes thermal imagers to assist in identifying the source of an alarm is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Electronic Security Systems (ESS) function provides transmission of data between the sensors and annunciators? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you reset the mini portable monitor (MPM) after an alarm is received? |
|
Definition
| shake it or turn the unit upside down |
|
|
Term
| Where does the security forces (SF) member begin the 50 meter overlapping strip method of search? |
|
Definition
| The terrain nearest to his or her position |
|
|
Term
| The majority of targets detected on the battlefield are due to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a soldier adapts to the dark before donning goggles, the individual gains full dark adaptation within |
|
Definition
| 2 minutes after removing the goggles |
|
|
Term
| When burying the mini magnetic sensor (MMS), how deep must you bury the magnetic sensor head? |
|
Definition
| 6 to 8 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach |
|
|
Term
| The components that make up the Mini Active Infrared Detection sensor are |
|
Definition
| an emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter |
|
|
Term
| What type of protection does the 385 monostatic microwave sensor provide? |
|
Definition
| Three dimensional protection in outdoor environments |
|
|
Term
| Microwave sensors are relatively sensitive to |
|
Definition
| rain, snow, vibration, and small wind-blown objects |
|
|
Term
| Which sensor system alarms only if an object breaks more than 98.5% of at least one beam? |
|
Definition
| ECSI Active Infrared Sensor |
|
|
Term
| When the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) tripod is fully extended, it is 20 feet high and the legs are approximately |
|
Definition
| 20 feet apart at the base |
|
|
Term
| The surface that supports the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) display Control Unit must be able to handle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component do we use to adjust the elevation on the AN/PVS-4 night vision sight? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do we clean the AN/PVS-4 night vision sight's metal surfaces? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common method of employing the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle? |
|
Definition
| Facemask centered on forehead |
|
|
Term
| Why do we use demist shields on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| One ancillary function of the Hand Held Thermal Imager is |
|
Definition
| any monitor can be used in conjunction with the system |
|
|
Term
| What is the main disadvantage of direct observation? |
|
Definition
| Physical condition of the observer may affect power of observation |
|
|
Term
| What do we call arranging material around an object so that it appears to be part of the background? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Approximately how long does it take for your eyes to get accustomed to the lack of light? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When camouflaging your skin around the eyes, nose and chin, use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| One of the simplest way to distort the outline of a weapon is |
|
Definition
| wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth |
|
|
Term
| For camouflage of your equipment to be successful, it must |
|
Definition
| blend with its surroundings |
|
|
Term
| What could you use as a hasty firing position in built up areas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| While on the offensive, the squad uses obstacles to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What principle of employment reduces the enemy's ability to remove or breach obstacles? |
|
Definition
| Covered by observation & fire |
|
|
Term
| When setting up a concertina roadblock, place the concertina rolls or coils about |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Surface trip flares outwardly resemble |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much candlepower illumination does the M49A1 give off? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the safety clip on the M49A1? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When moving tactically, your survival depends largely on your ability to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An example of artificial cover is a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bushes, grass and shadows are examples of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which movement technique is preferred when you are under enemy observation or fire? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner we call? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What position should you assume to observe around corners of buildings? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What method do you use to clear a corner when speed is required? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Likelihood of enemy contact we divide into three categories; |
|
Definition
| not likely, possible and expected |
|
|
Term
| What areas do you avoid because they outline you against the lighter sky? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Squads use movement techniques to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Factors we use to determine movement techniques are control, dispersion, speed and |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which movement technique do we use when speed is essential and enemy contact is not likely? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the traveling formation the team leader is best located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the traveling overwatch formation, the trailing fire team is located |
|
Definition
| 50 meters behind the lead fire team |
|
|
Term
| When moving as a fire team in an urban area, the fire team crosses open areas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a near ambush, when do airmen in the kill zone assault through the ambush, using fire and movement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two basic formations for an ambush? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does the security element rejoin the flight after a hasty ambush? |
|
Definition
| After the assault element clears the kill zone |
|
|
Term
| What is a retrograde operation? |
|
Definition
| Organized movement to the rear or away from the enemy |
|
|
Term
| Which rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the leader prevent vehicles from skylining? |
|
Definition
| Make use of natural cover and concealment |
|
|
Term
| Which method of movement is used when enemy contact is possible and speed is desirable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| One advantage to pulling vehicles to the shoulder of the road in a herringbone pattern is |
|
Definition
| volume and density of organic weapons is higher |
|
|
Term
| An effective way to decrease damage by mines in convoy operations is |
|
Definition
| wear protective equipment |
|
|
Term
| How are map editions numbered if you have more than one edition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the marginal information, where is the elevation guide normally found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the framework of the map? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where can you find the note indicating a map's security classification? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Two minor terrain features are the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What terrain feature is an area of low ground surrounded by higher ground in all directions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do contour lines show you when you look at a map? |
|
Definition
| Relief and elevation on a standard map |
|
|
Term
| What does the term SOSES stand for? |
|
Definition
| Shape, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes |
|
|
Term
| The primary purpose of a profile is to determine if |
|
Definition
| a line of sight is available |
|
|
Term
| A rough (4-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately |
|
Definition
| 1,000 meters of the point you want to identify |
|
|
Term
| A refined (6-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately |
|
Definition
| 100 meters of the point you want to identify |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common unit of measure used in expressing direction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The meter scale is used in air base defense (ABD) operations and is usually for distances that run out to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The bezel ring is a ratchet device that, when rotated fully,
|
|
Definition
| contains 120 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees |
|
|
Term
| To ensure proper functioning of a compass, the safe separation distance from telephone wire is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| One of the most important parts to inspect on the compass is the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often must you check your compass on a known line of direction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During limited visibility, to preset your azimuth by the click method; find the desired azimuth, then |
|
Definition
| divide your azimuth by three |
|
|
Term
| Why would you use the deliberate offset method to set an azimuth to one side of your target? |
|
Definition
| To compensate for possible compass or map errors |
|
|
Term
| Which method lets you locate a position using two well-defined locations pinpointed on a map? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first step in navigating using terrain association? |
|
Definition
| Orient your map to the terrain you see |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of observation? |
|
Definition
| See the enemy but not be seen by them |
|
|
Term
| What does the term OCOKA stand for? |
|
Definition
| Observation/fields of fire, cover & concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach |
|
|
Term
| We use dead reckoning without natural steering marks when |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Range cards are a record of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many range cards are prepared for each position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the acronym TRP stand for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When would you fire into your secondary sector of fire? |
|
Definition
| When ordered to fire there |
|
|
Term
| How many sectors of fire are included on a range card? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The final protective line is the line that |
|
Definition
| shoots grazing fire across your sector front |
|
|
Term
| What are target reference points? |
|
Definition
| Natural or manmade features used to quickly locate targets |
|
|
Term
| What are target reference points (TRP) used for? |
|
Definition
| Controls direct-fire weapons but may be used for indirect fire weapons |
|
|
Term
| The information included in the marginal data section of the range card is position #, |
|
Definition
| weapon, unit, call sign/date, meters each circle represents, sensor ID numbers |
|
|
Term
| Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the final protective line (FPL) sketched in on your sector? |
|
Definition
| Thick dark line out to your weapon grazing fire distance & capping the top with an arrow |
|
|
Term
| How is dead space determined on the final protective line (FPL)? |
|
Definition
| Having your buddy walk the FPL |
|
|
Term
| The secondary sector of fire is shown on the range card by using |
|
Definition
| broken or dashed line on the boundary |
|
|
Term
| How many operating positions does the M4 stock have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the forward assist? |
|
Definition
| Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure |
|
|
Term
| The acronym SPORTS stands for |
|
Definition
| slap, pull, observe, release, tap and squeeze |
|
|
Term
| The primary purpose of preventative maintenance is to keep weapons |
|
Definition
| cleaned and properly lubricated |
|
|
Term
| What is the standard round used with the M4 rifle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of ammunition, used in the M4 carbine, has no primer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cartridge, used in the M4 carbine, has no projectile? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many meters is the maximum range for the M9 pistol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The front and rear sights for the M9 pistol are |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ball is the standard cartridge used with the M9? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| M882 ammunition is used against what type of target? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of ammunition does the M203 fire? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many meters is the maximum effective range for a point target? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many meters is the kill radius for high explosive rounds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Under what conditions would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of M249 ammunition is used during dry-fire exercises? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many meters is the M249 maximum effective range for an area target? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M879 shotgun using "00" buck shot round? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When employed in a physical security role the M879 is effective because |
|
Definition
| it can be used around sensitive resources such as fields, aircraft & equipment |
|
|
Term
| How are designated marksmen employed? |
|
Definition
| Individually or as a pair |
|
|
Term
| Some optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams are |
|
Definition
| response, overwatch, screening & reconnaissance |
|
|
Term
| The minimum and maximum grade authorized before being considered for sharpshooter is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The M24 is effective against point targets out to how many meters? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three common characteristics hand grenades share? |
|
Definition
| Short employment rage, small casualty radius, & delay element permits safe throwing |
|
|
Term
| How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many meters is the average person capable of throwing a hand grenade? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The hand grenade safety clip prevents the safety lever from |
|
Definition
| springing loose if the safety pin assembly is accidentally removed |
|
|
Term
| How can the M72 LAW be employed and fired? |
|
Definition
| Shoulder, standing, sitting, prone position, & kneeling |
|
|
Term
| Which statement best describes the M72 LAW? |
|
Definition
| Requires little from the user other than a visual inspection and some maintenance |
|
|
Term
| If the trigger-arming handle fails to stay in the ARM position, check |
|
Definition
| to see if the launcher is fully extended |
|
|
Term
| If a misfire occurs, how many seconds do you wait before removing the launcher from your shoulder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The sights of the AT4 resemble the sights of what other weapon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you decide not to fire M136 AT4 what must you do immediately? |
|
Definition
| Replace transport safety pin |
|
|
Term
| The Claymore mine is used primarily as a/an |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the Claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role it is considered a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The two detonator wells located on the top of the Claymore allow for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the Claymore employed when used as part of the base defense obstacle plan? |
|
Definition
| Stop, delay & disrupt enemy attacks |
|
|
Term
| For effective coverage of the entire front of a position, place mines in a line no closer than 5 meters and no farther apart than |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The final step in laying a mine is to turn legs rearward and then downward and spread each par of legs at a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When aiming mines with slit-type peep sight and knife-edge sight, how many inches to the rear of the sight do you position your eye? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where should the Claymore firing position be located? |
|
Definition
| foxhole or covered position |
|
|
Term
| After prolonged firing, the barrel of the MK19 will |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many calendar days can the QFEBJ sustain operations before requiring resupply? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The MK19 is most effectively employed as a |
|
Definition
| mobile suppressive fire platform covering a specific zone |
|
|
Term
| The MK19 has little effect on which type of targets? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The MK19 is capable of producing controlled and accurate fire for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the M2 is a very effective, versatile weapon that is |
|
Definition
| belt fed, recoil operated, & air cooled |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum number of meters for the M2 .50-caliber machine gun? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The M2 is most effectively employed when |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What factors influence employment actions of the M2? |
|
Definition
| Mission, terrain, target engagement & rules of engagement |
|
|
Term
| Grazing fire occurs when the projectile does not rise more than how many meters above the ground? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When deployed, the M252 81mm mortar team consists of how many people? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many rounds is the M252, mortar maximum rate of fire per minute per tube? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which type of round is used for fragmentation and blast effect? |
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Definition
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Term
| The only indirect fire weapon in the security forces arsenal is the |
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Definition
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Term
| Suppressive fires from mortars allow patrols to |
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Definition
| advance closer to their objective |
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Term
| Leaders should position weapons where they |
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Definition
| protect, avoid detection, and surprise enemy with lethal fire |
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Term
| When the primary threat is from dismounted infantry, the squad leader should position weapons |
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Definition
| on most likely dismounted avenue of approach first |
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Term
| Areas that cannot be covered by the fire from a given position because of obstacle are called |
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Definition
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Term
| Leaders select fixed positions that provide the MK19 team the opportunity to |
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Definition
| dismount and utilize the accuracy of the T&E mechanism |
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Term
| The first step in connecting the line to the TA-312 is |
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Definition
| strip away 1 inch of insulation from the ends of the two wires |
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Term
| To operate the TA-312/PT in the LB mode you must |
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Definition
| place the INT/EXT switch to INT position |
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Term
| When operating the SB-22, the operator uses the generator hand wheel to |
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Definition
| signal the called party when calls are extended |
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Term
| After you locate a grounding site and dig your hole, drive the grounding rod in until the |
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Definition
| top of the rod is about 3 inches above the bottom of the hole |
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Term
| When should hard wire lines be inspected? |
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Definition
| Before installation & daily when installed |
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Term
| When confronted with a culvert obstacle while running field wire, the wire |
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Definition
| should be passed through a culvert, if possible |
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Term
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Definition
| Continuous line connected to every phone and switchboard |
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Term
| Why should you recover field wire after an operation? |
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Definition
| So that the enemy can't use it or interfere with other operations |
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Term
| After the conductors have been cut, how many inches should they be staggered when splicing field wire? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which channel on the analog/portable radio communication (AN/PRC) 139 is reserved for priority use? |
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Definition
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Term
| To remove the antenna from the receiver on an analog/portable radio communication (AN/PRC) 139, you must |
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Definition
| turn the antenna counterclockwise |
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Term
| During initial power-up how many seconds will the frequency fill device execute a display segment? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the RX IF bandwidth programmable for? |
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Definition
| 136-174 MHz and 403-470 MHz receiver |
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Term
| Which statement is a step in base-station installation? |
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Definition
| Installing the power supply |
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Term
| When installing the power supply, select a flat surface |
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Definition
| 6 feet from the base station |
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Term
| Where is the guard receiver-transmitter installed in the base station? |
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Definition
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Term
| When is the programming cable used with the base station? |
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Definition
| For external programming of the portable radio communication (PRC) 139 |
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Term
| What is one of the causes for failure of the push-to-talk (PTT) button on the portable radio communication (PRC) 139? |
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Definition
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Term
| What has the tendency to cause rusting & malfunction in radios? |
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Definition
| Submersion in 6 inches of water |
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Term
| What is the first step in erecting the antenna mast? |
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Definition
| Selecting an unobstructed site |
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Term
| How many personnel are required to erect the assembled antenna mast? |
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Definition
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Term
| One of the elements of signal operating instructions (SOI) is |
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Definition
| complete supplemental instructions |
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Term
| Signal operating instructions (SOI) will allow base defense forces to ensure that communications are |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the concepts listed is necessary for effective communication? |
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Definition
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Term
| One of the three rules to remember when using the Authentication Sheet is to |
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Definition
| always transmit letters, not numbers |
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