Term
| What is the appearance of leukemia in the blood? |
|
Definition
| Typical RBC>WBC changes to WBC>RBC |
|
|
Term
| What are the two main types of leukemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the way leukemias are classificed |
|
Definition
| acute or chronic; origin of cancer (lympho or myelo) and cytic or blastic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| poorly differentiated cells, immature (blasts), rapidly fatal if untreated |
|
|
Term
| Describe chronic leukemia |
|
Definition
| well differentiated cells, mature, longer survival (no blasts) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| stem cell, lymphoblastic leukemia (child type lymphoblastic) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lymphoid committed cell; lymphoblastic leukemia, adult type lymphoblastic |
|
|
Term
| Describe the pathophysiology of acute leukemia |
|
Definition
| Cause is unknown (genetic, viruses, etc), immature cells don't differentiate; blasts proliferate, decrease or cessation of other cell creation (anemia, thrombocytopenia) |
|
|
Term
| Describe the bone marrow transplant process |
|
Definition
| high dose chemo (kill host bone marrow), total body irradiation, administer transfusion |
|
|
Term
ID cancer type:
Mitotic error, slow progression, 90% have splenomegaly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ID cancer type:
B cell transformation with failure to mature; decreased immunoglobulins, older adults, slow progression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 3 pre-leukemic conditions? |
|
Definition
| aplastic anemia, polycythemia vera, myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS); abnormal proliferation of blood cells that lead to cytopenias |
|
|
Term
| What medicine assisted Abdul Jabbar with his CML? |
|
Definition
| The "magic bullet" Gleevec |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common bone neoplasm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ID:
malignant neoplasm of plasma cells that damages the bone marrow and skeleton |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe Multiple myeloma |
|
Definition
| Idiopathic; generic; more likely to occur in those with long standing chronic infections; AA>white; men>women; 24-30 month survival |
|
|
Term
| Describe the pathology of multiple myeloma |
|
Definition
| clonal disorder of B lymphocytes; increased amounts of IgG (M protein) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| removal of diseased plasma and replacing with fresh plasma |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of malignant lymphomas? |
|
Definition
| Hodgkins lymphoma and non hodgkins |
|
|
Term
| Describe the pathology of hodgkins lymphoma |
|
Definition
| Presence of Reed-Sternburg cell; clonal disorder; T and B lymphocyte activity and function decrease |
|
|
Term
Describe the stage of hodgkins:
Stage 1 |
|
Definition
| single lymph node involvement |
|
|
Term
Describe the stage of hodgkins:
stage 2 |
|
Definition
| 2 or > lymph node involvement (same side of diaphragm) |
|
|
Term
Describe the stage of hodgkins:
stage 3 |
|
Definition
| lymph node involvement on both sides of the diaphragm |
|
|
Term
Describe the stage of hodgkins:
Stage 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the nomenclature for asystemic and systemic hodgkins? |
|
Definition
A= aysytemic manifestations
B= systemic manifestations |
|
|
Term
| Describe the patho of non Hodgkin lymphoma |
|
Definition
| Generic term for diverse group of lymphomas; B or T cells origin or "other"; mostly in older adults |
|
|
Term
| What are the two classifications of NHL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ID NHL Classification:
grow slowly; often have spread by the time of detection; |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ID NHL Classification:
usually need more intensive chemo; treatment begins immediately |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of non Hodgkin lymphoma in children? |
|
Definition
| burkitt lymphoma; fast growing of the jaw and facial bones |
|
|
Term
| What type of lymphadenopathy is common in Hodgkin's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two results of abnormal IgG deposition in multiple myeloma? |
|
Definition
| bone lesions that destroy cortical bone; kidney damage from bence jones proteins |
|
|
Term
| What is the dividing structure for upper and lower respiratory issues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens when there is air in the pleural space? |
|
Definition
| pneumothorax; lung collapses |
|
|
Term
| Describe the alveolar macrophages |
|
Definition
| phagocytes that make elastase to break down debris; must be neutralized by alpha 1 antitrypsin |
|
|
Term
| Describe the pathology of emphezema involving alveolar macrophages |
|
Definition
| smoking is most common cause; work over time to clean out excess debris; can overwork liver as it tries to make enough alpha 1 to clean up elastase |
|
|
Term
| ___ reduces surface tension of alveoli which makes it easier for them to stay open |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| mechanical movement of gas/air in and out of lungs |
|
|
Term
| Define minute volume and give the normal value for adults |
|
Definition
| movement of air in and out; 5-8 liters per min; VRxTV |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| volume of air per breath (8-10) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inspiratory reserve volume; part of volume on top of normal breath "leftover" |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| expiratory reserve volume; another exhalation after normal exhalation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| residual volume; air that remains in alveoli to keep them inflated after normal breathing |
|
|
Term
| What can vital capacity be measured with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Functional residual capacity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| how much can you expire in 1 sec |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| how pliable lungs are (expansion) |
|
|
Term
| Describe V/Q mismatching and its 3 aspects |
|
Definition
| ventilation/perfusion (blood flow); shunt unit (v/Q; ateclasis), dead space unit (V/q; pulmonary embolism), silent unit (v/q; pulmonary hypertension) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ID adventitious sound:
lower airway high pitched sound |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ID adventitious breath sound:
upper airway high pitched sound |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe Cheyne-Stokes breathing |
|
Definition
| alternating deep and shallow breathing with period of apnea |
|
|
Term
| Hypoventilation and hyperventilation refer to what kinds of findings/issues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is yellow/green/brown sputum indicative of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 4 signs of pulmonary disease? |
|
Definition
| cough, cyanosis, pain and clubbing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| edema fluid in alveoli, rales/crackles on inspiration, DOE, stress response and RAA triggered |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| passage of fluid or solid particles in the lungs; precautions are to lift head of bed, esp with eating/drinking |
|
|
Term
| Define respiratory failure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Restrictive pulmonary disease has difficulty with _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Obstructive pulmonary disease has difficulty with _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is another name for excavatum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| collapse of alveoli; can be caused by decreased surfactant, compression or absorption |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| personal does not breath completely; obstructed alveoli; can result from sedentary lifestyle; incentive spirometer helps fix it |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of pleural effusion |
|
Definition
| edema fluid collection in pleural space; or by tumor or abdominal distention |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of fever 24 hrs post op? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two main treatments for atelectasis? |
|
Definition
| incentive spirometer (10x/hr) and mobilization |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| air in the pleural space resulting in loss of negative intrapleural pressure; lung collapse; can be caused by COPD, asthma, cystic fibrosis, chest trauma or TB; |
|
|
Term
| Describe open pneumothorax |
|
Definition
| intrapleural pressure=extrapleural pressure |
|
|
Term
| Describe tension pneumothorax |
|
Definition
| site of pleural rupture acts as one way valve; expirated air is trapped and accumulates; *tracheal shift* |
|
|
Term
| What type of pt classically presents for spontaneous pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
| young tall thin male with no history of medical issues; defect in structure from lengthened chest cavity and lung; bleb formation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| milky fliud with lymph and fat |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pus; infection from pleural effusion |
|
|
Term
| Pleural effusion is what kind of disorder? |
|
Definition
| restrictive disorder; air can't get in |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inflammation of the pleura; preceded by URI; chills, fever, pain on inspiration, pleural friction rub |
|
|
Term
| Describe pulmonary fibrosis |
|
Definition
| healing/scar tissue after pulmonary disease; idiopathic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| infection of lower respiratory tract; fungal bacteria or viral |
|
|
Term
| The resurgence of TB is a result of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the classic manifestation of TB? |
|
Definition
| hemoptysis; classic triad of TB (dyspnea, chest pain and hemoptysis); sputum culture for acid fast bacillus |
|
|
Term
| a positive TB is a reaction to what? |
|
Definition
| T lymphocytes that have been sensitized by prior infection or exposure |
|
|
Term
| What is the result when irritant receptors are stimulated? |
|
Definition
| bronchoconstriction and tachypnea |
|
|
Term
| What are juxtapulmonary capillary receptors sensitive to? |
|
Definition
| increased capillary pressure; consequent rapid shallow breathing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Fibrocytic changes; most widely accepted term for physiologic nodularity and breast tenderness that comes and goes with period |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common feature of FCC of breast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes the fibrous changes over time in breast? |
|
Definition
| cysts frequently rupture with release of secretions over time; leads to chronic inflammation and scarring fibrosis; leads to breast firming; continues till menopause |
|
|
Term
| Define sclerosis adenosis |
|
Definition
| enlargement of 1 or more lobular units because of increase in density of fibrous tissue |
|
|
Term
| What is the leading COD for women ages 40-44? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most important gene mutation type in breast cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do most diverse breast cancer types arise from? |
|
Definition
| ductal glandular epithelium |
|
|
Term
| Where is the first sign of a painless breast lump likely to appear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two phases of the ovarian cycle? |
|
Definition
| follicular (1-14) and luteal (15-28) |
|
|
Term
| Days 1-6 of the menstrual phase are ___ dominant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| day 1 of the menstrual cycle is always the first day of __ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes shedding of the endometrium? |
|
Definition
| low levels of circulating estrogen and progesterone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| secretion of LH and therefore final egg maturation and ovulation |
|
|
Term
| What is FSH responsible for? |
|
Definition
| follicle stimulating hormone; development of follicles in ovary that contain mature eggs |
|
|
Term
| What is required for the maturation and ovulation of an egg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the phase from menses end to ovulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hormone surge at midcycle causes ovulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes proliferation of endometrium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ causes secretory phase of endometrium and preps uterus for implantation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a decrease in ___ the first two months could cause issue with implantation or abortion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does fertilization take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What area of the uterus is most common for implantation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A morula forms ___ cells and blastocytes form ___ cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hormone is detected in pregnancy tests and responsible for nausea and vomiting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two membranes of the amniotic sac? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name for the appearance of a physiologic fetal side placenta? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name for the maternal side of the placenta? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What substance keeps the umbilical cord from kinking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does fetal viability possible begin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After what gestational age to infants have the BEST chance of surviving? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the lifetime prevalence rate for OCD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| recurrent thoughts/impulses that are intrusive and stressful; Excessive and unreasonable; cannot be expunged by reasoning |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| repetitive ritualistic behavior to reduce stress or prevent an unwanted event; rigid rules |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| obsessions, anxiety, compulsion, relief |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of obsessing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common compulsion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Turrets is a ___ disorder |
|
Definition
| tic; several types of tics |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pediatric autoimmune neurological disorder |
|
|
Term
| What is another common obsession? |
|
Definition
| fear of harming others (hitting a bump in the road and thinking its a person) |
|
|
Term
| What are two other common compulsions? |
|
Definition
| counting, tapping and repeating senseless words to reduce anxiety; praying excessively |
|
|
Term
| What historical figure had an obsession with contamination and infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between obsessions and psychosis? |
|
Definition
| obsessions are not fixed and the person recognizes their absurdity; psychosis is the opposite |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between compulsion and tics? |
|
Definition
| tics are purposeless; compulsions relieve anxiety |
|
|
Term
| What is the early believed cause of OCD? |
|
Definition
| devil/supernatural forces |
|
|
Term
| What were some classic ways OCD was treated? |
|
Definition
16th- bloodletting and enemas
19th- opium, morphin, bromides |
|
|
Term
| When do hoarding symptoms emerge? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| hair pulling disorder; relieves tension caused by anxiety |
|
|
Term
| Define trichophagia; what does it often lead to? |
|
Definition
| eating hair; trichobezoar |
|
|
Term
| Define excoriation disorder |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is another name for excoriation disorder? |
|
Definition
| body focused repetitive behavior disorder |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common ego defense mechanism? |
|
Definition
| undoing; performing acts to cancel out undesirable impulses |
|
|
Term
| Hoarders have abnormal activity in what part of the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the issue with the brain in regards to body dysmorphic disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of antidepressants are used to treat OCD? |
|
Definition
| selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| chronic obstructive lung disease; pt exacerbates but does not come back up to baseline; eventually cannot exchange gas |
|
|
Term
| What is the main issue with bronchitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a consequence with obstructive pulmonary disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If there is a weakness in the bronchial walls it is likely that they have what 2 conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the disease where chronic pulmonary tissue destruction occurs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two aspects of Impaired Gas Exchange in OPD? |
|
Definition
| chronic hypercapnia (elevated PaCO2/CO2 retainer) and desensitized central chemoreceptors (hypoxic respiratory drive) |
|
|
Term
| How do you know if someone is a chronic CO2 retainer? |
|
Definition
| bicarb in mid 30s-40s (or CO2) |
|
|
Term
| When is a CO2 retainer or someone with COPD more likely to become apneic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In PFT air gets trapped in ___ ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ chronically leads to _____ which leads to silent units |
|
Definition
| vasoconstriction; hypertrophy |
|
|
Term
| Describe 3 aspects of silent units in OPD |
|
Definition
| decreased ventilation, decreased perfusion, pulmonary hypertention |
|
|
Term
| Describe Cor Pulmonale in OPD |
|
Definition
| R ventricular failure r/t lug disease; jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, peripheral edema |
|
|
Term
| Describe the pathophysiology of emphysema |
|
Definition
| coexists with chronic bronchitis, destruction of alveolar walls, increased elastase relative to alpha 1; eventual increase elastase and decrease alpha 1 b/c of destructive potential |
|
|
Term
| Describe the two types of emphysema |
|
Definition
| Centriacinar [centrilobular] central/proximal bronchioles, assoc. with pollutants; Panacinar (panlobular) assoc. with congenital alpha 1 deficiency |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| manifestation of emphysema; normal or mild hypoxemia with dyspnea; tripod, pursed lip breathing, barrel chest |
|
|
Term
| Describe acute bronchitis |
|
Definition
| acute inflammation of airways; wheezing is common |
|
|
Term
| Describe the pathology of chronic bronchitis |
|
Definition
| coexists with emphysema, inflammation caused by irritants; hypersecretion of mucous with increase in goblet cells |
|
|
Term
| What adventitious breath sounds are you likely to hear in someone with chronic bronchitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Someone with chronic bronchitis is known as a ____ _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| acute obstructive pulmonary disease; reversible airway changes; hyper-responsiveness of airways and bronchospasms |
|
|
Term
| Describe extrinsic asthma |
|
Definition
| environmental antigens, most common type of asthma, usually begins in childhood; attacks preceded by rhinitis, urticarial, eczema |
|
|
Term
| Describe intrinsic asthma |
|
Definition
| non-allergic; usually triggered by RTI or viruses; exercise, cold or drug (asprin) induced |
|
|
Term
| Describe the ABGs of someone having an asthma attack |
|
Definition
| hypoxemia an respiratory acidosis with no compensation; set up for respiratory failure |
|
|
Term
| What is another term for obesity hypoventilation syndrome? Describe it |
|
Definition
| Pickwickian syndrome; BMI over 40, cor pulmonale, central hypoventilation from hypoxemia and hypercapnea |
|
|
Term
| What are the daytime symptoms of OSA as a result of low O2 levels? |
|
Definition
| extreme exhaustion, early morning headaches, lack of concentration, memory loss |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Continuous Positive Airflow Pressure; steady airflow that keeps nasal passages open |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| congenital disorder of exocrine glands; dehydrated mucous, obstructive problems; increased NaCl absorption (taste salty) |
|
|
Term
| Describe the pulmonary alteration of CF |
|
Definition
| mucous plugging, chronic inflammation and infection; decrease in amt. functional lung tissue; respiratory failure is COD |
|
|
Term
| Describe the GI alteration of CF |
|
Definition
| malabsorption syndromes (pancreas and biliary; fat soluble vitamins), diabetes, liver disease; |
|
|
Term
| What are the reproductive consequences of men with CF? |
|
Definition
| oligospermia, aspermia, obstruction of vas dederens, sterility |
|
|
Term
| What are 4 pulmonary clinical manifestations of CF? |
|
Definition
| barrel chest, hypoxemia, productive cough, adventitious breath sounds (ronchi, rales, wheezes) |
|
|
Term
| What are 4 GI clinical manifestations of CF? |
|
Definition
| weight loss, failure to thrive, loose oily stools, steatorrhea |
|
|
Term
| Describe the female mortality of lung cancer |
|
Definition
| mortality is higher than any cancer due to increased smoking |
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for your body to return to normal after you stop smoking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of lung cancer? |
|
Definition
| non small cell (squamous, adenocarcinoma), large cell (undifferentiated), small cell (oat cell) |
|
|
Term
ID lung cancer type:
near hilus and project into bronchi, nonproductive cough, hemoptysis, pneumonia, atelectasis; treated with resection and chemo |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| glands and epithelial origin; weakest association with smoking, small, asymptomatic early on; slow growing with unpredictable pattern of metastasis |
|
|
Term
| Describe large cell carcinoma |
|
Definition
| neither radiation or chemo improves survival; large cell anaplastic cancer; diagnosed by exclusion |
|
|
Term
| ID lung cancer type: worst prognosis, early metastasis, strongest correlation with cigarette smoking |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of lung cancer is associated with ectopic hormone production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of ectopic ADH production in small cell carcinoma? |
|
Definition
| water retention (edema, hypertension, decreased urine), hyponatremia (confusion, seizures) |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of ectopic production of ACTH? |
|
Definition
| increased cortisol and aldosterone, cushing's syndrome (moon face, hirutism, hyperglycemia, muscle weakness) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lung cancer linked to asbestos exposure |
|
|
Term
| What are two signs of lung cancer metastasis? |
|
Definition
| neurologic changes (brain mets) hypercalcemia, pathologic fractures |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| chronic arterial disease; hardening of the arteries |
|
|
Term
| What are two consequences of atherosclerosis? |
|
Definition
| type of arteriosclerosis; thromboemboli may form and blood flow may ultimately cease |
|
|
Term
| In arterio and atherosclerosis what aspect of the vessel thickens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe Poiseuille's Law |
|
Definition
| radius of blood vessel is most important factors that effects blood flow; if radius of a blood vessel is reduced by half resistance increases x16 |
|
|
Term
| Describe the interaction of macrophages and LDLs in endothelial injury |
|
Definition
| macrophages eat LDLs; dive into tunica intima to get them and contribute to vascular injury |
|
|
Term
| How is fatty streak development reversed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe a complicated lesion in atherosclerosis |
|
Definition
| calcification, hemorrhage into vessel wall, platelet aggregation |
|
|
Term
| Describe modifiable risk factor Lpa |
|
Definition
| Lipoprotein A; generically altered form of LDL; important link to diabetes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bring excess cholesterol back to liver for re-synthesis; inhibit endothelial smooth muscle proliferation |
|
|
Term
| What constitutes hypertension? |
|
Definition
| consistently elevated BP (on 2 or > visits) |
|
|
Term
| Describe the different stages of hypertention |
|
Definition
Pre-hypertension: 120-139/80-89
Stage 1 HTN: 140-159/90-99
Stage 2 HTN: >160/>100 |
|
|
Term
| What is TPR influenced by? |
|
Definition
| blood vessel diameter and BP |
|
|
Term
| What is the key determinant of afterload? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does angiotensin 2 effect BP? |
|
Definition
| RAA system; vasoconstriction/increased resistance |
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of L ventricular failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ID HTN:
High Na intake, age, family history, increase in CO or peripheral vascular resistance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the role of Kidney vasodepressors in BP? |
|
Definition
| Making sure it does not get too high |
|
|
Term
| Primary HTN is related to an increase in what 2 cardiac factors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the shift in the pressure natriuresis |
|
Definition
| primary hypertension leads to less renal excretion of salt than would normally occur with increased BP |
|
|
Term
| Describe secondary hypertension |
|
Definition
| secondary to primary disease; renal, endocrine or pregnancy induced |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| systemic complications secondary to HTN diagnosis (primary or secondary but has developed a systemic condition) |
|
|
Term
ID heart condition:
hypertensive crisis; rapid increase of BP, restlessness, blurred vision, headache |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ID htn:
common in elderly; rigidity of aorta, risk for cv disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Give the effect of the HTN treatment and its effect on CO:
Diuretics |
|
Definition
| decrease blood volume; effects preload |
|
|
Term
Give the effect of the HTN treatment and its effect on CO:
vasodilators |
|
Definition
| reduce constriction; TPR and afterload |
|
|
Term
Give the effect of the HTN treatment and its effect on CO:
ACE inhibitors |
|
Definition
| Less angio 2 (vasoconstrictor); TPR and afterload |
|
|
Term
Give the effect of the HTN treatment and its effect on CO:
Calcium channel blockers |
|
Definition
| vasodilator; TPR and afterload |
|
|
Term
Give the effect of the HTN treatment and its effect on CO:
alpha blockers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Give the effect of the HTN treatment and its effect on CO:
Beta blockers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe acute orthostatic hypotension |
|
Definition
| sluggish regulatory mechanisms, fluid deficit, drug effects |
|
|
Term
| Describe chronic orthostatic hypotension |
|
Definition
| secondary to a specific disease |
|
|
Term
| What is a common cause of aneurysm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What inherited collagen vascular disease is associated with thoracic aorta aneurysms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ID aneurysm type:
involves 3 layers of the vessel wall |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ID aneurysm type:
blood contained at point of aneurysm by clot |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ID aneurysm type:
blood is contained at point of aneurysm by adventitia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of meds treat an aneurysm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where will arterial clots travel? |
|
Definition
| wherever that artery nourishes |
|
|
Term
| Where do venous embolisms usually travel to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An inverted T wave is a sign of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The "tomb stone T" (elevated ST segment) on an EKG is a sign of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of CAD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the patho of an MI |
|
Definition
| O2 supply and demand imbalance for heart muscle; changes are reversible if blood flow is restored |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 clinical manifestations of MI? |
|
Definition
| silent ischemia (elderly/diabetic) and angina pectoris |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| classic/exertional, predictable, relieved by rest and nitrates; unrelieved (15 mins.) indicates MI |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| crescendo angina, occurs at rest, unpredictable, high risk of MI if unrelieved |
|
|
Term
| Describe prinzmetal angina |
|
Definition
| transmural (effects entire myocardium), occurs at rest, often during REM sleep (adrenergic) |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of nitrates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the patho of an MI (2) |
|
Definition
| unrelieved cardiac ischemia (>20min), cellular injury (conduction dysfunction); some degree of heart failure, high level of dysrhythmia |
|
|
Term
| What does the LAD nourish? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 cardiac serum enzymes associated with MI? |
|
Definition
| troponin, CPK, and MB (myocardial band) |
|
|
Term
| Describe troponin cardiac enzymes |
|
Definition
| specific for cardiac injury and not present in healthy ppl; TnI stays elevated for 5-10 days and cTnT for 5-14 days |
|
|
Term
ID cardiac enzyme:
rises and returns to normal sooner than CK (2 days) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ID cardiac enzyme:
found in heart muscle, skeletal muscle and brain; can be increased in muscle trauma and convulsions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A Q wave on an EKG is evidence of what? |
|
Definition
| infarction; will have q waves for life |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common complication from an MI? |
|
Definition
| dysrthythmia: can result in sudden death |
|
|
Term
| What is the common dysrhythmia type in CAD? Describe it |
|
Definition
| Atrial Fibrillation; blood isn't pumped completely out of atria, so it may pool and clot. If embolized it can cause stroke |
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